I think most of us are familiar with Godwin's Law, but for those who haven't:
Godwin's law - Wikipedia
It comes up in a variety of different contexts, but much of the time it's brought up in the context of international relations and how we deal with other countries. We might single out some leader of some rogue nation, declare that he's "just like Hitler," and this somehow justifies any number of hostile or violent actions against them or their country. (i.e. "what if we could have used a drone to kill Hitler?")
It's also used in arguments and debates regarding domestic politics, as our current president has often been associated with Hitler.
So, my questions to the peanut gallery are as follows:
1. Why do people do this? What is the point?
2. Does using Hitler in the context of modern politics display an ignorance of history, WW2, who Hitler was and the nation he ruled?
3. Could it have the effect of distorting history?
4. Does a comparison to Hitler justify and validate any number of attitudes and political actions (up to and including violence, torture, and assassination) which wouldn't normally be considered justified against an ordinary human being?
5. Does one side play the Hitler card more than the other? Or are both sides (left and right) equally guilty of using it to suit their ends?
6. Does Hitler give a good name to war?