Shad
Veteran Member
I think I will just leave it, still makes no sense to me
You need to reorder the argument. The sentence structure is a sloppy.
Welcome to Religious Forums, a friendly forum to discuss all religions in a friendly surrounding.
Your voice is missing! You will need to register to get access to the following site features:We hope to see you as a part of our community soon!
I think I will just leave it, still makes no sense to me
There are no stats.This is an assertion. Present your stats otherwise.
There are no stats.
Ok, Im not native english speaking, so I prefer things being written clearlyYou need to reorder the argument. The sentence structure is a sloppy.
Sorry that was so confusing. I later explained what that OP means.I think I will just leave it, still makes no sense to me
Yes. Quite right. Many will eventually get some subtle things, or for some believers already in total faith even visions or dreams perhaps, but as I understand the primary goal here in this temporary life is for us to gain faith and develop faith, through following Christ, through doing as He says, loving others, which means I think that easy evidence must generally be missing (since it would preclude faith, and that matters since faith itself is the main goal).Again, it all depends upon what you mean by communicate.
Ok, Im not native english speaking, so I prefer things being written clearly
Sorry that was so confusing. I later explained what that OP means.
There is no evidence that God has ever communicated directly to everyone, thus it is known that God (if God exists) has never communicated directly to everyone; but just because it is known that God (if God exists) has never communicated directly to everyone that does not mean that if God existed God would not communicate directly to everyone.
That is essentially what the atheist in the OP is stating. I was asking people on this forum if they considered that logical or illogical.
What you wrote (Shad) in the link, is also how I understood it. But I still don't see why the afterlife have to be drawn into this or how it is relevant for what the person is saying and it being logical or notTake a look at this post linked below. It may make more sense to you. The part of the post in red specifically
Is this logical?
Rom1:19Because that which may be known of God is manifest in them; for God hath shewed it unto them. 20For the invisible things of him from the creation of the world are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made, even his eternal power and Godhead; so that they are without excuse:Is this logical? Why or why not?
God not communicating directly to everyone is an observation, something known. However, it does not follow that, since it is observable that God does not communicate directly to everyone, that this means that if God existed God would not communicate directly to everyone.
(Note: I did not write this.)
What you wrote (Shad) in the link, is also how I understood it. But I still don't see why the afterlife have to be drawn into this or how it is relevant for what the person is saying and it being logical or not
Ok that might have confused me thenThe afterlife has nothing to do with the point nor it is required nor relevant to the point being made
Please try to forget I ever mentioned the afterlife.What you wrote (Shad) in the link, is also how I understood it. But I still don't see why the afterlife have to be drawn into this or how it is relevant for what the person is saying and it being logical or not
Ok that might have confused me then
Based on what you wrote in the link, the only thing I would say in regards to what you wrote, is that you make it sound like God (OP) is saying that God communicate to some, just not all. But that this could change later on.
That was one of your premises, to evaluate the statement "as is".It is rational only if you do not consider any other factors.
You are close...Ok that might have confused me then
Based on what you wrote in the link, the only thing I would say in regards to what you wrote, is that you (OP) make it sound like God is saying that God communicate to some, just not all. But that this could change later on.
I think there are some ways to determine probability....Ergo there is no ability to determine chance as I said. Chance being another word for probability.
Okay, and yours was a valid response.That was one of your premises, to evaluate the statement "as is".
Speaking of faith being the goal, this is one of my favorite verses:Yes. Quite right. Many will eventually get some subtle things, or for some believers already in total faith even visions or dreams perhaps, but as I understand the primary goal here in this temporary life is for us to gain faith and develop faith, through following Christ, through doing as He says, loving others, which means I think that easy evidence must generally be missing (since it would preclude faith, and that matters since faith itself is the main goal).
Putting logic aside and starting speculating/interpretating:You are close...
He never said that God has communicated to anyone. He was saying that God has never communicated directly to everyone but that does not mean that God would never communicate directly to everyone. That could change later on.
No, that is not what he was saying. He was saying that just because God has never been observed communicating to everyone, that does not mean God would not communicate directly to everyone if God existed.Putting logic aside and starting speculating/interpretating:
The atheist author of the original statement was conceeding that the absense of a clear message to everyone is not a valid argument for gods non existence. I agree.
That is true... God would have lots of splaining to do.You have found the hook in that statement yourself: if god started to communicate, it'd have a hell lot of 'splaing to do.