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Matthew 28:1-10 versus John 20:1 and 2

rstrats

Active Member
Matthew 28:1-10 says that when Mary Magdalene went to the tomb that she was told by an angel that the Messiah had risen and would be seen in Galilee. Matthew then says that she ran "with great joy" to tell the disciples and while on the way that she met the Messiah (this occurred before she got to the disciples).

However, John 20:1 and 2 say that when she came to the tomb and didn’t find the Messiah there, that she ran to the disciples and told them that He had been taken away and that she didn’t know where He was. In Matthew she knew where He was (or at least had been) and where He would be, but in John she didn’t.

How can this be reconciled?
 

LightofTruth

Well-Known Member
It seems that the Mary's ran into Peter and another disciple before they got to where all the other disciples were. That would mean that Jesus appeared to them after they saw Peter and the other.
 

shmogie

Well-Known Member
In Johns account, Mary made two trips to the tomb, the first, which you cite, then the second beginning with verse 11, which follows closely Matthews account.

Matthew apparently felt this first tomb visit of Mary was unimportant compared to the first.
 

leov

Well-Known Member
Matthew 28:1-10 says that when Mary Magdalene went to the tomb that she was told by an angel that the Messiah had risen and would be seen in Galilee. Matthew then says that she ran "with great joy" to tell the disciples and while on the way that she met the Messiah (this occurred before she got to the disciples).

However, John 20:1 and 2 say that when she came to the tomb and didn’t find the Messiah there, that she ran to the disciples and told them that He had been taken away and that she didn’t know where He was. In Matthew she knew where He was (or at least had been) and where He would be, but in John she didn’t.

How can this be reconciled?
16"Jesus said to her, “Mary.” She turned and said to him in Aramaic,b “Rabboni!” (which means Teacher). 17Jesus said to her, “Do not cling to me, for I have not yet ascended to the Father; but go to my brothers and say to them, ‘I am ascending to my Father and your Father, to my God and your God.’” 18Mary Magdalene went and announced to the disciples, “I have seen the Lord”—and that he had said these things to her." Jn.20
 

metis

aged ecumenical anthropologist
Matthew 28:1-10 says that when Mary Magdalene went to the tomb that she was told by an angel that the Messiah had risen and would be seen in Galilee. Matthew then says that she ran "with great joy" to tell the disciples and while on the way that she met the Messiah (this occurred before she got to the disciples).

However, John 20:1 and 2 say that when she came to the tomb and didn’t find the Messiah there, that she ran to the disciples and told them that He had been taken away and that she didn’t know where He was. In Matthew she knew where He was (or at least had been) and where He would be, but in John she didn’t.

How can this be reconciled?
All four gospel have what theologians call "variations" on the tomb visitation, and none of them exactly match.

For those who believe in inerrancy, this is a problem, but for those of us who don't, it's really not much of an issue.
 

wizanda

One Accepts All Religious Texts
Premium Member
How can this be reconciled?
The way to reconcile it is that the Gospel of John is made up by the Sanhedrin to discredit Yeshua, it has numerous testimony errors, and sounds nothing like him.

It is mainly witness of what the Sanhedrin thought Yeshua was stating, and thus misrepresents many parts...

Take into account Yeshua came teaching the "Gospel", there is no word "Gospel" in John.

In my opinion. :innocent:
 

Skwim

Veteran Member
Matthew 28:1-10 says that when Mary Magdalene went to the tomb that she was told by an angel that the Messiah had risen and would be seen in Galilee. Matthew then says that she ran "with great joy" to tell the disciples and while on the way that she met the Messiah (this occurred before she got to the disciples).

However, John 20:1 and 2 say that when she came to the tomb and didn’t find the Messiah there, that she ran to the disciples and told them that He had been taken away and that she didn’t know where He was. In Matthew she knew where He was (or at least had been) and where He would be, but in John she didn’t.

How can this be reconciled?
Seems the relevant verses are

Jesus appeared before the women before they reached his followers.

Matthew 28: 8-10
8 So the women left the tomb quickly. They were afraid, but they were also very happy. They ran to tell his followers what happened. 9 Suddenly, Jesus was there in front of them. He said, “Hello!” The women went to him and, holding on to his feet, worshiped him. 10 Then Jesus said to them, “Don’t be afraid. Go tell my followers to go to Galilee. They will see me there.”​


Jesus appeared before the women after they reached his followers

John 20:1-2, 13-14
20 Early on Sunday morning, while it was still dark, Mary Magdalene went to the tomb. She saw that the large stone was moved away from the entrance. 2 So she ran to Simon Peter and the other follower (the one Jesus loved very much). She said, “They have taken the Lord out of the tomb, and we don’t know where they put him.”

10 Then the followers went back home. 11 But Mary stood outside the tomb, crying. While she was crying, she bent down and looked inside the tomb. 12 She saw two angels dressed in white sitting where Jesus’ body had been. One was sitting where the head had been; the other was sitting where the feet had been.
.
.
13 The angels asked Mary, “Woman, why are you crying?”

Mary answered, “They took away the body of my Lord, and I don’t know where they put him.” 14 When Mary said this, she turned around and saw Jesus standing there. But she did not know that it was Jesus.

Appears to be just another Biblical contradiction that can't be reconciled. Pick which ever suits your theology. One or none may be the truth.

.
 

sealchan

Well-Known Member
Matthew 28:1-10 says that when Mary Magdalene went to the tomb that she was told by an angel that the Messiah had risen and would be seen in Galilee. Matthew then says that she ran "with great joy" to tell the disciples and while on the way that she met the Messiah (this occurred before she got to the disciples).

However, John 20:1 and 2 say that when she came to the tomb and didn’t find the Messiah there, that she ran to the disciples and told them that He had been taken away and that she didn’t know where He was. In Matthew she knew where He was (or at least had been) and where He would be, but in John she didn’t.

How can this be reconciled?

Two different accounts written by two different authors both of whom were not eyewitnesses to any aspect of this story. That's how I would "reconcile" it.

No worthwhile Christian beliefs were harmed in the making of this post.
 

1213

Well-Known Member
Matthew 28:1-10 says that when Mary Magdalene went to the tomb that she was told by an angel that the Messiah had risen and would be seen in Galilee. Matthew then says that she ran "with great joy" to tell the disciples and while on the way that she met the Messiah (this occurred before she got to the disciples).

However, John 20:1 and 2 say that when she came to the tomb and didn’t find the Messiah there, that she ran to the disciples and told them that He had been taken away and that she didn’t know where He was. In Matthew she knew where He was (or at least had been) and where He would be, but in John she didn’t.

How can this be reconciled?

When Mary came to the tomb, Peter and “the other disciple” came short after her. They didn’t found Jesus and that is why Peter and “the other disciple” went to their homes. Mary didn’t go, but “was standing outside at the tomb weeping”. And after that Mary Saw the angels and heard the message and then left to the other disciples.

I think there is not contradiction, when the scriptures are understood in right time frame. Matthew and John tells the same story, but they have some details different, but they are not contradictory, when events are not combined wrongly.
 

allright

Active Member
Matthew 28:1-10 says that when Mary Magdalene went to the tomb that she was told by an angel that the Messiah had risen and would be seen in Galilee. Matthew then says that she ran "with great joy" to tell the disciples and while on the way that she met the Messiah (this occurred before she got to the disciples).

However, John 20:1 and 2 say that when she came to the tomb and didn’t find the Messiah there, that she ran to the disciples and told them that He had been taken away and that she didn’t know where He was. In Matthew she knew where He was (or at least had been) and where He would be, but in John she didn’t.

How can this be reconciled?


Mary ran by herself to tell the disciples as soon as she saw the tomb was empty before the angel appeared and spoke to the other women

The Mathew passage does'nt say Mary was still there when the angel appeared
 

rstrats

Active Member
allright,
re: "Mary ran by herself to tell the disciples as soon as she saw the tomb was empty before the angel appeared and spoke to the other women"

So you're saying that John 20:2 can be inserted after Matthew 28:2 and before Matthew 28:5? And that the "women" mentioned in Matthew 28:5 didn't include Mary Magdalene? If so, where would you insert John20:11 into the Matthew account?
 

sooda

Veteran Member
It seems that the Mary's ran into Peter and another disciple before they got to where all the other disciples were. That would mean that Jesus appeared to them after they saw Peter and the other.
Its pretty confusing and was written decades after the events.
 

3rdAngel

Well-Known Member
Matthew 28:1-10 says that when Mary Magdalene went to the tomb that she was told by an angel that the Messiah had risen and would be seen in Galilee. Matthew then says that she ran "with great joy" to tell the disciples and while on the way that she met the Messiah (this occurred before she got to the disciples).

However, John 20:1 and 2 say that when she came to the tomb and didn’t find the Messiah there, that she ran to the disciples and told them that He had been taken away and that she didn’t know where He was. In Matthew she knew where He was (or at least had been) and where He would be, but in John she didn’t.

How can this be reconciled?

It is reconciled quite easily....

Mary made two trips to the sepulcher. One very early in the morning where she sees the stone taken away and leaves and reports what has happened to the rest of the disciples *JOHN 20:1-2 and the second when she returns with the disciples and stays at the tomb after the disciples leave JOHN 20:10-18 and sees JESUS.

JOHN 20:1-18

First trip to the sepulcher v1-9 ...

[1], The first day of the week comes Mary Magdalene early, when it was yet dark, to the sepulcher, and sees the stone taken away from the sepulcher.
[2], Then she runs, and comes to Simon Peter, and to the other disciple, whom Jesus loved, and said to them, They have taken away the LORD out of the sepulcher, and we know not where they have laid him.
[3], Peter therefore went forth, and that other disciple, and came to the sepulcher.
[4], So they ran both together: and the other disciple did outrun Peter, and came first to the sepulcher.
[5], And he stooping down, and looking in, saw the linen clothes lying; yet went he not in.
[6], Then comes Simon Peter following him, and went into the sepulcher, and sees the linen clothes lie,
[7], And the napkin, that was about his head, not lying with the linen clothes, but wrapped together in a place by itself.
[8], Then went in also that other disciple, which came first to the sepulcher, and he saw, and believed.
[9], For as yet they knew not the scripture, that he must rise again from the dead.

Second trip to the sepulcher back with the disciples v10-18...

[10], Then the disciples went away again to their own home.
[11], But Mary stood without at the sepulcher weeping: and as she wept, she stooped down, and looked into the sepulcher,
[12], And sees two angels in white sitting, the one at the head, and the other at the feet, where the body of Jesus had lain.
[13], And they say to her, Woman, why weep you? She said to them, Because they have taken away my LORD, and I know not where they have laid him.
[14], And when she had thus said, she turned herself back, and saw Jesus standing, and knew not that it was Jesus.
[15], Jesus said to her, Woman, why weep you? whom seek you? She, supposing him to be the gardener, said to him, Sir, if you have borne him hence, tell me where you have laid him, and I will take him away.
[16], Jesus said to her, Mary. She turned herself, and said to him, Rabboni; which is to say, Master.
[17], Jesus said to her, Touch me not; for I am not yet ascended to my Father: but go to my brothers, and say to them, I ascend to my Father, and your Father; and to my God, and your God.
[18], Mary Magdalene came and told the disciples that she had seen the LORD, and that he had spoken these things to her.

Matthews 28:1-10 version only focuses on the second trip to the sepulcher and the Angels who removed the stone from the entrance to the sepulcher.

Hope this help :)
 
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1213

Well-Known Member
It is reconciled quite easily....

Mary made two trips to the sepulcher. ...

I think you have a good point. Other option is that Mary went there only one time with the others. And when others left, Mary stayed there until he saw the messengers and then, after he had heard the message, left to tell to others.
 

allright

Active Member
allright,
re: "Mary ran by herself to tell the disciples as soon as she saw the tomb was empty before the angel appeared and spoke to the other women"

So you're saying that John 20:2 can be inserted after Matthew 28:2 and before Matthew 28:5? And that the "women" mentioned in Matthew 28:5 didn't include Mary Magdalene? If so, where would you insert John20:11 into the Matthew account?

Mary returned with John and Peter after the other women had left
 
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