?

TagliatelliMonster said:

So, non-christians wear brown shirts while non-christians wear blue shirts?

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No, it's Christians who wear brown shirts and non-Christians who wear blue shirts. If you look, *sigh,* it's right in the rules.


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Skwim said:

No, it's Christians who wear brown shirts and non-Christians who wear blue shirts. If you look, *sigh,* it's right in the rules.
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LOL, wauw.

It really was a loooooong day.
Brain-failure is starting to set in...

Alone said:

What is the difference between a Christian and a non-Christian?

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I find Jesus emphasized it is the doing of his Father's will (purpose) at Matthew 7:21 B.
Genuine 'wheat' Christians would be doing as instructed to declare kingdom good news of Daniel 2:44 to all nations.
- Matthew 24:13-14; 28:18-20; Acts 1:8

LuisDantas said:

Maybe my experience is not representative, but I sure feel that to be far too symplistic.

At the very least, we should acknowledge that there are many (millions of) people who have grown used to expectations, concepts and language influenced or even created by Christianity and end up conforming to those to some degree, often in loose or no connection to actual matters of belief or faith.

That is actually a complex field, worth of a lot of study.

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I see what you mean now, and yes, there is a lot of "gray area" surrounding what it actually means to be a "Christian." But there are certain axiomatic beliefs that are held, and it is at least true that a person either professes themselves a Christian or they do not. And I was definitely appealing more to the axiomatic attributes that come along with someone calling themselves a "Christian" versus anyone else who is not. Basically - if we take any two individuals, one identifying as "Christian" and one denying that label and belief set, that is the sort of "dichotomy" I am talking about. Probably much like the assumptions made in the OP. With the amount of gray area you seem to be wanting to install into the topic (and yes, I understand that this gray area does exist), the OP doesn't make any sense anyway. What's the difference between the two? Well... almost nothing that can't be resolved to absolute garbage the moment you talk to a Christian of another denomination or persuasion.

LuisDantas said:

At this point I sincerely don't know what you are talking about.

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Take a single tenet of Christianity (and yes, I am about to make an assumption here - sue me): "The Abrahamic God exists"

We find two people, one who believes this, and one who does not. We have believer, and nonbeliever. You either believe this thing or you do not believe this thing - that is a true dichotomy.

And with respect to the point of "The Abrahamic God exists" a person stating this is either correct or incorrect. This is a simple fact. And so, if the person stating this is correct, then they're the ones that have made an accurate choice that reflects reality. The nonbeliever, then, has made an inaccurate choice that does not reflect reality - which may simply be based in ignorance. And vice versa if the nonbeliever, who doesn't believe, is the one whose view more accurately represents reality - i.e. if the Abrahamic God doesn't exist. But no matter who is correct, the difference between them is the same... one between them is ignorant/deluded/incorrect with respect to a fact of reality - that is... that God does exist or doesn't exist.

Thanks to all those who have commented on this post, it appears as though I have some serious soul-searching to do!

A Vestigial Mote said:

I see what you mean now, and yes, there is a lot of "gray area" surrounding what it actually means to be a "Christian." But there are certain axiomatic beliefs that are held, and it is at least true that a person either professes themselves a Christian or they do not. And I was definitely appealing more to the axiomatic attributes that come along with someone calling themselves a "Christian" versus anyone else who is not. Basically - if we take any two individuals, one identifying as "Christian" and one denying that label and belief set, that is the sort of "dichotomy" I am talking about. Probably much like the assumptions made in the OP. With the amount of gray area you seem to be wanting to install into the topic (and yes, I understand that this gray area does exist), the OP doesn't make any sense anyway. What's the difference between the two? Well... almost nothing that can't be resolved to absolute garbage the moment you talk to a Christian of another denomination or persuasion.
Take a single tenet of Christianity (and yes, I am about to make an assumption here - sue me): "The Abrahamic God exists"
We find two people, one who believes this, and one who does not. We have believer, and nonbeliever. You either believe this thing or you do not believe this thing - that is a true dichotomy.
And with respect to the point of "The Abrahamic God exists" a person stating this is either correct or incorrect. This is a simple fact. And so, if the person stating this is correct, then they're the ones that have made an accurate choice that reflects reality. The nonbeliever, then, has made an inaccurate choice that does not reflect reality - which may simply be based in ignorance. And vice versa if the nonbeliever, who doesn't believe, is the one whose view more accurately represents reality - i.e. if the Abrahamic God doesn't exist. But no matter who is correct, the difference between them is the same... one between them is ignorant/deluded/incorrect with respect to a fact of reality - that is... that God does exist or doesn't exist.

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To me, the ' grey areas ' are about Scripture verses church traditions or customs.
I find many associated with Christendom ( claiming to be Christian but mostly in name only ) differ.
They may claim the Abrahamic God exists but ignore Genesis 12:3; Genesis 22:18.
They look only to going to Heaven at death with No thought to an earthly resurrection.
The Abrahamic God promised father Abraham that ALL families and ALL nations will be blessed.
Blessed with the benefit of ' healing ' for earth's nations in conjunction with Revelation 22:2.
Thus, the reason why we are all invited to pray the invitation of Revelation 22:20 for Jesus to come !
Come and undo all the damage Satan and Adam brought upon us which includes getting rid of enemy death.
Or, as 1 Corinthians 15:26 says ' enemy death ' will be No more on Earth - Isaiah 25:8

URAVIP2ME said:

To me, the ' grey areas ' are about Scripture verses church traditions or customs.
I find many associated with Christendom ( claiming to be Christian but mostly in name only ) differ.
They may claim the Abrahamic God exists but ignore Genesis 12:3; Genesis 22:18.
They look only to going to Heaven at death with No thought to an earthly resurrection.
The Abrahamic God promised father Abraham that ALL families and ALL nations will be blessed.
Blessed with the benefit of ' healing ' for earth's nations in conjunction with Revelation 22:2.
Thus, the reason why we are all invited to pray the invitation of Revelation 22:20 for Jesus to come !
Come and undo all the damage Satan and Adam brought upon us which includes getting rid of enemy death.
Or, as 1 Corinthians 15:26 says ' enemy death ' will be No more on Earth - Isaiah 25:8

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Revelation 20
5 But the rest of the dead lived not again until the thousand years were finished. This is the first resurrection.
is this supposed to be the same as the rapture or what? cuz I don't see the word rapture in the Bible at all, according to what I've read, rapture is:
A state of great happiness, pleasure, or love.
Webster's 1828

Alone said:

What is the difference between a Christian and a non-Christian?

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Only one of them gets a tax credit for the membership fees to their social club.

Harel13 said:

I assume it means to do what Jesus said to do (as stated in the NT)...

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There were Christians before there was a New Testament, so apparently it doesn't mean that.

9-10ths_Penguin said:

There were Christians before there was a New Testament, so apparently it doesn't mean that.

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The NT brings what Jesus said to do.
And there weren't Christians before Jesus came along, so...

Harel13 said:

The NT brings what Jesus said to do.

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Does it?

There's an interesting thing about the Gospels: when you look at the date each Gospel was written and the sort of Jesus each book describes, Jesus tends to expand over time. The further in time we get from Jesus's (purported) actual life, the more teachings and miracles we get from him.

And there weren't Christians before Jesus came along, so...

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There's about 35-50 years from the (purported) crucifixion until the Gospel of Mark. There's about 360 years from the crucifixion to the Synod of Hippo when the canon was formally established.

9-10ths_Penguin said:

Does it?

There's an interesting thing about the Gospels: when you look at the date each Gospel was written and the sort of Jesus each book describes, Jesus tends to expand over time. The further in time we get from Jesus's (purported) actual life, the more teachings and miracles we get from him.

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*Shrug* well, I don't care all that much about Christianity in any case.

Alone said:

What is the difference between a Christian and a non-Christian?

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I believe a Christian is saved from his sin and qualifies for eternal life and the non-Christian isn't and doesn't.

SalixIncendium said:

In my experience, a Christian is someone who has received Christian baptism and/or accepts Christ as their savior.

A non-Christian is someone who hasn't and/or doesn't.

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I believe baptism doesn't save a person and if he only has Jesus as Savior and not Lord then he isn't really saved because Jesus isn't going to save anyone who doesn't give Him the authority to do so.

Alone said:

I guess just in the general view of the world? The term "Christian" is a word just like any other word so I guess I'm trying to understand what this word means?

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I believe the meaning of the word is not a good definition of what a Christian is. The word means someone who believes Jesus is the Messiah of Israel. Christ is the Greek word for Messiah.

Muffled said:

Jesus isn't going to save anyone who doesn't give Him the authority to do so.

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I don't understand this statement? I didn't realize that humans have authority over the son of God?

Alone said:

Revelation 20
5 But the rest of the dead lived not again until the thousand years were finished. This is the first resurrection.
is this supposed to be the same as the rapture or what? cuz I don't see the word rapture in the Bible at all, according to what I've read, rapture is:
A state of great happiness, pleasure, or love.
Webster's 1828

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Hope this is of some help.
Right, the word 'rapture ' does Not appear in Scripture, but the word ' resurrection ' does.
I find some think when Jesus comes they will be lifted up to where Jesus is.
In order to be where Jesus is one needs a 'resurrection from the dead' because ' flesh ' (physical) can Not inherit the kingdom as Jesus. -> 1 Corinthians 15:50; Revelation 20:4c
People like those of Luke 22:28-30 are resurrected to heaven - Revelation 2:10; Revelation 5:9-10; Revelation 20:6
These have that first or earlier resurrection (Heaven). Their resurrection being first or earlier in time.
First fruits as per Revelation14:4; 1 Corinthians 15:53; Revelation 20:6a
Revelation being highly symbolic in vivid word pictures for us.
So, as for the 'dead lived not again until the thousand years were finished', is in God's viewpoint because the dead who will have a happy-and-healthy physical resurrection could still fall away before the end of the thousand years.
So, they are Not declared as ending as being ' righteous ' until the thousand years are over.
This would also include those of the great crowd of Revelation 7:9,14 who survive Armageddon and are found alive on Earth at the start of calendar Day One of Jesus millennium-long day of governing over Earth for a thousand years.
These figurative humble 'sheep ' (Matthew 25:37) at the beginning of the thousand years might fall away before the end of the thousand years - Matthew 24:13.
We can be declared as being righteous because of having a living active faith in Jesus' ransom - Romans 3:23-24.
But, Not being ' made alive ' with unending life, with eternal life, until the end of the thousand years.

9-10ths_Penguin said:

Does it?
There's an interesting thing about the Gospels: when you look at the date each Gospel was written and the sort of Jesus each book describes, Jesus tends to expand over time. The further in time we get from Jesus' (purported) actual life, the more teachings and miracles we get from him.
There's about 35-50 years from the (purported) crucifixion until the Gospel of Mark. There's about 360 years from the crucifixion to the Synod of Hippo when the canon was formally established.

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To me Bible canon was formally established long before the Synod of Hippo.
* 1st century writings is what is regarded as reliable NT Scripture.
So, the ' church ' was merely recognizing the 1st-century books as the authoritative Word from God.
Thus, Bible canon was established early on the stage, so the ' church ' did Not establish but merely testified to what was already accepted by God.
* It is the ancient manuscripts that support Bible canon.
* Whereas, the apocryphal books simply exclude themselves being out of harmony with the harmonious 66 books of Bible canon.

URAVIP2ME said:

Hope this is of some help.
Right, the word 'rapture ' does Not appear in Scripture, but the word ' resurrection ' does.
I find some think when Jesus comes they will be lifted up to where Jesus is.
In order to be where Jesus is one needs a 'resurrection from the dead' because ' flesh ' (physical) can Not inherit the kingdom as Jesus. -> 1 Corinthians15:50; Revelation 20:4c
People like those of Luke 22:28-30 are resurrected to heaven - Revelation 2:10; Revelation 5:9-10; Revelation 20:6
These have that first or earlier resurrection (Heaven). Their resurrection being first or earlier in time.
First fruits as per Revelation14:4; 1 Corinthians 15:53; Revelation 20:6a
Revelation being highly symbolic in vivid word pictures for us.
So, as for the 'dead lived not again until the thousand years were finished', is in God's viewpoint because the dead who will have a happy-and-healthy physical resurrection could still fall away before the end of the thousand years.
So, they are Not declared as ending as being ' righteous ' until the thousand years are over.
This would also include those of the great crowd of Revelation 7:9,14 who survive Armageddon and are found alive on Earth at the start of calendar Day One of Jesus millennium-long day of governing over Earth for a thousand years.
These figurative humble 'sheep ' (Matthew 25:37) at the beginning of the thousand years might fall away before the end of the thousand years - Matthew 24:13.
We can be declared as being righteous because of having a living active faith in Jesus' ransom - Romans 3:23-24.
But, Not being ' made alive ' with unending life, with eternal life, until the end of the thousand years.

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Interesting

Harel13 said:

Ah, so how can you differentiate between Christians and non-Christians?

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Normally, a christian when slapped turns the other cheek. But this doesn't happen, so I don't know.