You're mistaken. The science is evidence. The scientist's philosophical interpretations of it can be ignored.
If, for example, Bloom's study is evidence to counter the argument that morals are not taught and learned as experience, it doesn't matter what his other hypotheses are because the evidence speaks for itself.
How is what you are saying different to simply stating "I can just ignore any of the science that I don't like and cherry pick the bits which support my preconceived assumptions as they are self-evidently right"?
The science shows differences in 'intuitive' morality based on culture. This seems obvious to anyone who studies history, or spends any length of time in very different cultural environments, and also happens to be what the science supports.
Bloom:
I've made three arguments here. The first is that humans are in a very interesting way, nice. The second is that we have evolved a moral sense, and this moral sense is powerful, and can explain much of our niceness. It is far richer than many empiricists would have believed. But the third argument is that this moral sense is not enough. That accomplishments we see and we admire so much in our species are due to factors other than our evolutionary history. They are due to our culture, our intelligence and our imagination
A New Science of Morality, Part 5 | Edge.org
Why do you think not one single scientist supports your views despite 'the evidence speaking for itself'?
Likewise, Haidt's 2000 study was useful in establishing that moral judgments are intuitive. But, he has nothing to offer beyond that. For example, he has group pride among his key virtues. He hasn't figured out that group pride is disguised arrogance and its ever-present companion is group prejudice, the root cause of war.
Haidt's study that also said a) culture plays a role in intuition and b) in some circumstances, reason can 'override' intuition to reach moral decisions.
Why do you find it so hard to believe that humans, animals who evolved in small groups in a dangerous world, would evolve biases towards those who were part of their in-group?
The science supports this, our personal experience supports this, human history supports this, and common sense supports this. When so many things align and it follows perfect evolutionary logic, why do you think your personal musings should override science and hundreds of thousands of years of human experience?