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John 5:22 compared to Romans 2:3, [interpretation, Jesus Believers only

D

Desert Snake

Veteran Member
So, as I would interpret this, or read this directly, rather, Romans 2:3, is calling Jesus, God, and He is doing the judging.
•
However, some believe, that 'God' the name and title, can't or isn't used to refer to JESUS. Thusly, since we know that 'the Father', judges no man, John 5:22, how would you interpret Romans 2:3, ie God, judging

John 5:22
For the Father judgeth no man, but hath committed all judgement unto the son.
[KJV]

Romans 2:3
And thinkest thou this, O man, that judgest them which do such things, and doest the same, that thou shall escape the judgement of God?
[KJV]
 
nPeace

nPeace

Veteran Member
Desert Snake said:
So, as I would interpret this, or read this directly, rather, Romans 2:3, is calling Jesus, God, and He is doing the judging.
•
However, some believe, that 'God' the name and title, can't or isn't used to refer to JESUS. Thusly, since we know that 'the Father', judges no man, John 5:22, how would you interpret Romans 2:3, ie God, judging

John 5:22
For the Father judgeth no man, but hath committed all judgement unto the son.
[KJV]

Romans 2:3
And thinkest thou this, O man, that judgest them which do such things, and doest the same, that thou shall escape the judgement of God?
[KJV]
Click to expand...
Therefore, the word Jesus has spoken must be God then.
(John 12:48) The word that I have spoken is what will judge him on the last day.
 
Deeje

Deeje

Avid Bible Student
Premium Member
Desert Snake said:
So, as I would interpret this, or read this directly, rather, Romans 2:3, is calling Jesus, God, and He is doing the judging.
•
However, some believe, that 'God' the name and title, can't or isn't used to refer to JESUS. Thusly, since we know that 'the Father', judges no man, John 5:22, how would you interpret Romans 2:3, ie God, judging

John 5:22
For the Father judgeth no man, but hath committed all judgement unto the son.
[KJV]

Romans 2:3
And thinkest thou this, O man, that judgest them which do such things, and doest the same, that thou shall escape the judgement of God?
[KJV]
Click to expand...

John 5:22...
"For the Father judges no one at all, but he has entrusted all the judging to the Son" is backed up by Acts 10:42 and Acts 17:31.

Romans 2:3 (in plain modern English)
"But do you suppose, O man, that while you judge those who practice such things and yet you do them, you will escape the judgment of God? M
Since any judgment that Jesus renders is God's judgment anyway (God gave the Law to Moses and taught Jesus everything he knew) Jesus can pass judgment even though he did not invent the basis upon which that judgment takes place.

A judge in a court of law today renders judgment that is not his, but according to the law he represents. Jesus too renders his judgments according to the Law of his God...acting as his representative.
 
L

LightofTruth

Well-Known Member
Desert Snake said:
So, as I would interpret this, or read this directly, rather, Romans 2:3, is calling Jesus, God, and He is doing the judging.
•
However, some believe, that 'God' the name and title, can't or isn't used to refer to JESUS. Thusly, since we know that 'the Father', judges no man, John 5:22, how would you interpret Romans 2:3, ie God, judging

John 5:22
For the Father judgeth no man, but hath committed all judgement unto the son.
[KJV]

Romans 2:3
And thinkest thou this, O man, that judgest them which do such things, and doest the same, that thou shall escape the judgement of God?
[KJV]
Click to expand...

Okay, Jesus is equal with the Father because the Father has committed all judgement to the son?:eek:

How bout if the father did not commit all judgment to the son?:confused:
 
Workman

Workman

UNIQUE
Desert Snake said:
So, as I would interpret this, or read this directly, rather, Romans 2:3, is calling Jesus, God, and He is doing the judging.
•
However, some believe, that 'God' the name and title, can't or isn't used to refer to JESUS. Thusly, since we know that 'the Father', judges no man, John 5:22, how would you interpret Romans 2:3, ie God, judging

John 5:22
For the Father judgeth no man, but hath committed all judgement unto the son.
[KJV]

Romans 2:3
And thinkest thou this, O man, that judgest them which do such things, and doest the same, that thou shall escape the judgement of God?
[KJV]
Click to expand...
{And thinkest thou this, O man,}
-For The one(s) whom ALWAYS [Think] for what be always right of themselves.

{that judgest them which do such
things,}
-[Thought] it be the same with all others that [think] like they do,

{and doest the same,}
-And [thought] the same have done like they have done,

{that thou shall escape the
judgement of God?}
-And STILL they have [THOUGHT] which would than be escaped Their own judgement from GOD?

GOD BLESS.
 
Last edited:
D

Desert Snake

Veteran Member
LightofTruth said:
Okay, Jesus is equal with the Father because the Father has committed all judgement to the son?:eek:

How bout if the father did not commit all judgment to the son?:confused:
Click to expand...
You'll need to explain how many Deities you have, who jesus is, (if He isn't the Lord, so forth.
Because, as of now

1 Corinthians 8:6
[One Lord, Jesus Christ

Matthew 22:37
[Lord your God

2 Corinthians 6:18
[Lord Almighty.

So, Jesus is Lord, correct? Or not correct? More than one Lord?

Can't have a discusdion if you don't explain these things. Ie , your theism, how it translates to the Bible, so forth.
 
D

Desert Snake

Veteran Member
Deeje said:
John 5:22...
"For the Father judges no one at all, but he has entrusted all the judging to the Son" is backed up by Acts 10:42 and Acts 17:31.

Romans 2:3 (in plain modern English)
"But do you suppose, O man, that while you judge those who practice such things and yet you do them, you will escape the judgment of God? M
Since any judgment that Jesus renders is God's judgment anyway (God gave the Law to Moses and taught Jesus everything he knew) Jesus can pass judgment even though he did not invent the basis upon which that judgment takes place.

A judge in a court of law today renders judgment that is not his, but according to the law he represents. Jesus too renders his judgments according to the Law of his God...acting as his representative.
Click to expand...
It doesn't say the 'father'. It says God. So if there is a difference, which I believe there is, then I'm going with 'God', there, and you can figure out the 'father son' stuff.
 
D

Desert Snake

Veteran Member
nPeace said:
Therefore, the word Jesus has spoken must be God then.
(John 12:48) The word that I have spoken is what will judge him on the last day.
Click to expand...
Why is that?

God
Jesus

Problem solved.
That is what you are inferring, yet you are 'necessitating' jesus, who already sacrificed himself.

So, I don't know where you're going with this.
 
L

LightofTruth

Well-Known Member
Desert Snake said:
You'll need to explain how many Deities you have, who jesus is, (if He isn't the Lord, so forth.
Because, as of now

1 Corinthians 8:6
[One Lord, Jesus Christ

Matthew 22:37
[Lord your God

2 Corinthians 6:18
[Lord Almighty.

So, Jesus is Lord, correct? Or not correct? More than one Lord?

Can't have a discusdion if you don't explain these things. Ie , your theism, how it translates to the Bible, so forth.
Click to expand...
It's very simple and I don't have to do anything but look to the Scriptures for the answer.

The Scripture says that God has made Jesus Lord So, what does it mean that Jesus is Lord (made so by his God)?
Again, look to the Scripture. God has exalted Jesus above all in both heaven and earth. Therefore, Jesus has been made Lord of all by his God.

And again the Scripture says there is one God and one Lord. The Father is the one God and Jesus has been made Lord by the one God.
 
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