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Slavery in the Bible: more than meets the eye?

viole

Ontological Naturalist
Premium Member
Isn’t this interesting on slavery.

Duet 23:15 “… “You shall not give up to his master a slave who has escaped from his master to you. He shall dwell with you, in your midst, in the place that he shall choose within one of your towns, wherever it suits him. You shall not wrong him…”

You help return lost property in the last chapters but when it comes to slaves… you let them stay free.

Freedom for slaves built into the law and in more than one way. The year of jubilee when slaves were set free another example. n

A moral book should not give prescriptions concerning freeing slaves at the jubilee, or what to do when one escapes, or anything of the sort. Sounds like a set of rules for stray dogs or other pets belonging to someone.

A moral book should say that humans cannot possibly be property. Period. Put it high in the list, instead of those useless commandments at the beginning. And that should make all those ridiculous prescriptions redundant to start with.

Of course, the Bible does not qualify as a moral book if we insist that humans cannot possibly be owned. The same if we insist that mass genocide and the indiscriminate killing of women and babies, is not moral.

What i find mind boggling is that most Christians really believe their morality comes from the subject(s) that wrote that book. I would not be so proud of it.

Ciao

- viole
 

A Vestigial Mote

Well-Known Member
Here's 10,000 words on the subject, demonstrating the Bible taught indentured servitude and not slavery, not that any atheist would dare to read the entire post:
http://christianthinktank.com/qnoslave.html

"In brief, most varieties of slavery did not exhibit the three elements that were dominant in the New World: slaves as property and commodities; their use exclusively as labor; and their lack of freedom..."
At least one part of what they try to beg "most varieties of slavery" out of here is 100% present and accounted for in The Bible: "slaves as property and commodities". This can easily be demonstrated by the infamous "Exodus 21:20-21" - "for he IS HIS MONEY." A human being, being referred to as "money" BY THE BIBLE. I don't care the rest of the context, The Bible names humans as capable of being held as property and as "money." That's what it does, clear as day.

In the ANE (and OT), this was NOT the case. The dominant (statistically) motivation was economic relief of poverty (i.e., 'slavery' was initiated by the slave--NOT by the owner--and the primary uses were purely domestic (except in cases of State slavery, where individuals were used for building projects).
The article at this point goes on to say that examination of LEGAL documents indicated the majority of types of slavery they are talking about. But does this include slaves taken as spoils of war or purchased from other lands? Would there be legal documents (i.e. contracts) drawn up for people taken as spoils of war or purchased from foreigners? Point being - perhaps the majority of legally documented cases of slavery were of the types of "indentured servitude" that keeps being argued for, but did those documents even represent the majority of other sources of slaves as well? Were there documents in those cases? This isn't mentioned.

The person who wrote this also seems to cite unrelated sources of information that are "from the general time period" and then just apply it to the early Biblical societies because it is convenient. For example, they back up this quote:
This might also be seen from the fact that war/violence was NOT a major source of 'real' slaves in the ANE (nor OT). For example, even though there were large numbers of war-captives in the ANE, they were generally NOT turned into slaves, but rather into tenant-farming, serfs:
With this source/info:
Within all the periods of antiquity, Egyptian, Mesopotamian, Hittite, Persian, and other Oriental rulers carried away great masses of captives from their victorious battles. But only an insignificant part of them was turned into slaves;
Note the cultures/peoples mentioned in the source quote. Were "Egyptians" Jewish? Were the people of Meopotamia Jewish? Was the Hittite empire Jewish? Persian? "Oriental?" The Ancient Hebrews were nomadic to begin with, and traveled within lands such as Mesopotamia, but this quote does not seem to refer to these nomadic people doing the warring and conquering and not taking slaves. Those people are not mentioned. So how is this evidence against the idea that the HEBREWS took few slaves in their conquests? They follow up with a general statement "The same, of course, can be said of Israel." and one example where when entire cities surrendered, their people were made into a vassal state to Israel. But when an entire city suddenly falls under your control, it only makes sense that you aren't going to take all the people out of it, and ship them off to be slaves everywhere. I feel like this is a poor example, and doesn't necessarily relieve the pressure of scrutiny.

There are references in even the sources that admit that masters had quite a range of control over their "slaves" - regardless whether they were being beaten or not, the master was granted control over many aspects of the slave's life. For example, the right to own various types of property was at the master's discretion. According to the source material, slaves were also prohibited from engaging in litigation against their masters. So why all this attempt to paint slaves of the time as being "like family" or "voluntary" - when those things (if cases like that existed) were most certainly anecdotal? Not all slaves were "so happy" and "properly treated," and The Bible does indeed offer up the idea that one can be pretty nasty to one's slaves and not face punishment. Stuff like this:
In the ANE, although some cultures had pre-built "debt-payoff-periods" (like Israel's 6 years), "chattel" manumission was rare because it wasn’t sought after--the issues of economic security and the quasi-family relationships that developed within the household unit created little incentive to become 'independent':
So what? So there were some cases where the "slaves" ended up being dependent on their master's, and didn't so much mind because their relationship was amicable. So what? Does this mean ALL slave-master relationships were like this? No, not at all. And The Bible, as I stated, offers up some dastardly practices that one can undergo with a slave and not face punishment. So you can very well bet that cases like ones where the slave died from the beating after a few days DID HAPPEN, and therefore they needed legal recourse for those instances. Hence the reason they wrote about it in The Bible. And any master that had beaten his slaves so much that they died after a few days could ALWAYS EASILY point to The Bible, shrug his shoulders and skip away whistling care-free. And there's the problem. Whether or not some people treated their slaves well, or didn't beat them to death, others did, and The Bible specifically names it as morally/economically/socially permissible.

This is all I can think about when I read Exodus 21:20-21:
Judge: "So, your slave died, correct?"
Master: "Yes your honor."
Judge: "And it says here that you beat him severely, and he died as a result of injuries from the beating, correct?"
Master: "Well... yes. Yes, your honor."
Judge: "Yes indeed... a very grave matter we have here. Although... hmmm... it says also here that the slave didn't die for 3 whole days. Is that right?"
Master: "Yes, your honor. We lost him on the third day."
Judge: "Well, my condolences sir."
Master: "Thank you. Although, to be sure, he wasn't really my friend or anything, I mean... I don't really beat my friends like that."
Judge: "Oh, no no - you misunderstood... I meant my condolences for the money you didn't make during those 3 days that your slave was laid up, dying. Not to mention whatever cost and investment you had in the slave himself."
Master: "Oh! Ah, yes. That was indeed unfortunate."
Judge: "Well, good sir, it seems to me as though you have suffered enough from this unfortunate situation. No need to go punishing you further. We all know how important money is."
Master: "Thank you, your honor. May I go now? I need to get to the market in a neighboring nation, so I can buy myself a replacement slave."
Judge: Yes, you are free to go, obviously. Go with God, my good man."
Master: "Always your honor."
 
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Milton Platt

Well-Known Member
Isn’t this interesting on slavery.

Duet 23:15 “… “You shall not give up to his master a slave who has escaped from his master to you. He shall dwell with you, in your midst, in the place that he shall choose within one of your towns, wherever it suits him. You shall not wrong him…”

You help return lost property in the last chapters but when it comes to slaves… you let them stay free.

Freedom for slaves built into the law and in more than one way. The year of jubilee when slaves were set free another example. n

Jubilee reference was only for Hebrew slaves. Others were your property and to pass along to your heirs.
 

Milton Platt

Well-Known Member
Here's 10,000 words on the subject, demonstrating the Bible taught indentured servitude and not slavery, not that any atheist would dare to read the entire post:
http://christianthinktank.com/qnoslave.html

Indentured servitude was reserved for Hebrew slaves, other slaves were personal property that could be passed down to your heirs. You could beat them and so long as they didn't die within a couple of days, there were no consequences for the owner.
 

QuestioningMind

Well-Known Member
Isn’t this interesting on slavery.

Duet 23:15 “… “You shall not give up to his master a slave who has escaped from his master to you. He shall dwell with you, in your midst, in the place that he shall choose within one of your towns, wherever it suits him. You shall not wrong him…”

You help return lost property in the last chapters but when it comes to slaves… you let them stay free.

Freedom for slaves built into the law and in more than one way. The year of jubilee when slaves were set free another example. n

Yet God very specifically condones slavery in Exodus, where he says that you can own outsiders as property for life , that like cattle they can be given to one's heirs, and that you are more than welcome to beat your slaves, just as long as they do not die as a result of the beating within a couple of days.

I've never understood why anyone would worship a being that not only failed to very explicitly state that owning other people as property is WRONG, but who actually tells his followers that it's an acceptable practice.
 

shunyadragon

shunyadragon
Premium Member
FYI.
The bible does condemn slavery.
The slavery it speaks about is a humanitarian assistance to a poor family.
Then there are laws prohibiting you to practice human trafficing.
It does have hard labour to non Israelites who were not allowed to participate in the conscription in the military.
But that is the same as say JW's refusing to bare arms, and they will be doing civil labour for a specific time.

the only time slavery is found in the Bible, is when the Atheis ignore 99% of the regulations on "Slavery", and use single descriptions to create a strawman slavery impression.
I attach a collection of everything the Bible say on the topic.

This only refers to indentured servitude within Hebrews, and not the foreign slaves. Foreign slaves are property to be bought and sold.

Leviticus 25:45
Moreover of the children of the strangers that do sojourn among you, of them shall ye buy, and of their families that are with you, which they begat in your land: and they shall be your possession.

smite every male thereof with the edge of the sword:

Deuteronomy 20:14
But the women, and the little ones, and the cattle, and all that is in the city, even all the spoil thereof, shalt thou take unto thyself; and thou shalt eat the spoil of thine enemies, which the LORD thy God hath given thee.

Deuteronomy 20:15
Thus shalt thou do unto all the cities which are very far off from thee, which are not of the cities of these nations.

Deuteronomy 20:16
But of the cities of these people, which the LORD thy God doth give thee for an inheritance, thou shalt save alive nothing that breatheth:

I don't think there is a verse saying slavery is good in the Bible.

I think some like Oprah are looking to superficially at the issue and the Bible is painting a picture in some sense of freedom in Christ with the evils of the day.

Some like what?!?!?!

The citations above clearly document Hebrews practiced slavery with foreign slaves.
 

1213

Well-Known Member
Isn’t this interesting on slavery.

Duet 23:15 “… “You shall not give up to his master a slave who has escaped from his master to you. He shall dwell with you, in your midst, in the place that he shall choose within one of your towns, wherever it suits him. You shall not wrong him…”...

I think that is a good point. I think it is also interesting that selling slaves was not allowed.

Anyone who kidnaps someone and sells him, or if he is found in his hand, he shall surely be put to death.
Ex. 21:16

For they are my servants, whom I brought forth out of the land of Egypt. They shall not be sold as slaves.
Lev. 25:42
 

shunyadragon

shunyadragon
Premium Member
Here's 10,000 words on the subject, demonstrating the Bible taught indentured servitude and not slavery, not that any atheist would dare to read the entire post:
http://christianthinktank.com/qnoslave.html

No need to go with 10,000 words. Simple specific citations concerning the slavery of foreigners is enough.

Leviticus 25:45
Moreover of the children of the strangers that do sojourn among you, of them shall ye buy, and of their families that are with you, which they begat in your land: and they shall be your possession.

smite every male thereof with the edge of the sword:

Deuteronomy 20:14
But the women, and the little ones, and the cattle, and all that is in the city, even all the spoil thereof, shalt thou take unto thyself; and thou shalt eat the spoil of thine enemies, which the LORD thy God hath given thee.


Deuteronomy 20:15
Thus shalt thou do unto all the cities which are very far off from thee, which are not of the cities of these nations.


Deuteronomy 20:16
But of the cities of these people, which the LORD thy God doth give thee for an inheritance, thou shalt save alive nothing that breatheth:

There is more . . .
 

shunyadragon

shunyadragon
Premium Member
I think that is a good point. I think it is also interesting that selling slaves was not allowed.

Anyone who kidnaps someone and sells him, or if he is found in his hand, he shall surely be put to death.
Ex. 21:16

For they are my servants, whom I brought forth out of the land of Egypt. They shall not be sold as slaves.
Lev. 25:42

Unfortunately this a slective reference for indentured servitude for Hebrew slaves . . .

Leviticus 25:45
Moreover of the children of the strangers that do sojourn among you, of them shall ye buy, and of their families that are with you, which they begat in your land: and they shall be your possession.

smite every male thereof with the edge of the sword:

Deuteronomy 20:14
But the women, and the little ones, and the cattle, and all that is in the city, even all the spoil thereof, shalt thou take unto thyself; and thou shalt eat the spoil of thine enemies, which the LORD thy God hath given thee.


Deuteronomy 20:15
Thus shalt thou do unto all the cities which are very far off from thee, which are not of the cities of these nations.


Deuteronomy 20:16
But of the cities of these people, which the LORD thy God doth give thee for an inheritance, thou shalt save alive nothing that breatheth:

More to follow . . .
 

Dell

Asteroid insurance?
Slavery is example of the mindset of people of the time till only just under 160 years ago. The Bible doesn't condemn it but actually has guidelines for when it's being done. No surprise since it was written in times when slavery was largely used and accepted by the wealthy and powerful who used religion to aid the control of the masses.

Peoples of all race and nationality were forced into slavery by poverty, or by being abducted, by being conquered, or by penalties of crime.

It should have been as horrifying then as it was 160 years ago. Any person then should have understood when an innocent person is being wrongfully abused. Eye for an eye?

One wonders why it wasn't condemned more so than sins in the Bible like homosexuality and adultery were men and women were stoned to death?

Seems like religions then were as selective about what is called sin as it is today....
 

PruePhillip

Well-Known Member
but, but, but . . .

You are right there is more citations in the OT to slavery, especially the differentiation between indentured servitude among Hebrews, and down right ownership of foreign slaves.

The failure of the Bible to condemn all forms of slavery, and places it advocate slavery, has lead to torcherous history of slavery in Christianity, and Islam.

Let's put it this way. Social attitudes change all the time - take homosexuality for instance.
Today there are activists who want to stop horse racing, okay? And like the gay issue there
will be mission creep - soon we won't be able to RIDE a horse. And when that day comes
we are all going to be happy with it.
And we will look askance at images of people riding horses. It will be cruel, barbaric. And
someone is sure to say, "If Jesus was a kind man why was he riding upon a donkey?"
And yes, we will see the failure of the bible to condemn riding animals, sacrificing animals
etc..

Same with slavery. Slavery existed probably before modern humans existed. It was a given.
The bible sought to ameliorate the condition of the slave. The bible isn't about changing the
world - it's about changing you.
 

shunyadragon

shunyadragon
Premium Member
Let's put it this way. Social attitudes change all the time - take homosexuality for instance.
Today there are activists who want to stop horse racing, okay? And like the gay issue there
will be mission creep - soon we won't be able to RIDE a horse. And when that day comes
we are all going to be happy with it.
And we will look askance at images of people riding horses. It will be cruel, barbaric. And
someone is sure to say, "If Jesus was a kind man why was he riding upon a donkey?"
And yes, we will see the failure of the bible to condemn riding animals, sacrificing animals
etc..

Same with slavery. Slavery existed probably before modern humans existed. It was a given.
The bible sought to ameliorate the condition of the slave. The bible isn't about changing the
world - it's about changing you.

Sliding off the subject and does not makes sense. Yes slavery has existed throughout human history, an it is a questionable dodge to talk about 'before modern human existence.'

It is obvious that social morals and ethic change over time, but the issue is what is the guidance from the Bible, which believers claim is spiritual guidance for all time, and misrepresenting what the guidance from the Bible clearly states.

There is a claim that slavery as slavery in Hebrew and Christian cultures does not have a basis in the Bible, and the institution of slavery was described as acceptable in society. As cited slavery, and indentured servitude were specifically described, and differentiated in the Bible, and this culture of slavery existed well up into the 19th century in various forms in Western culture in part the lack of guidance in the Bible to forbid slavery. This is also true of Islam.
 
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PruePhillip

Well-Known Member
... it is a questionable dodge to talk about 'before modern human existence.'....

Re Before modern humans. I think modern humans have been around about 60,000 years.
And before that we had more robust Homo sapiens, and before that Homo Heidelbergensis,
Homo Antecessor, Homo neanderthal etc.. I am sure they did nearly everything modern
humans do - including ship building, women stealing, cannibalism, fighting over territory
etc.. Keeping slaves probably was on their mind too.
 

PruePhillip

Well-Known Member
It is obvious that social morals and ethic change over time, but the issue is what is the guidance from the Bible, which believers claim is spiritual guidance for all time, and misrepresenting what the guidance from the Bible clearly states.

There is a claim that slavery as slavery in Hebrew and Christian cultures does not have a basis in the Bible, and the institution of slavery was described as acceptable in society. As cited slavery, and indentured servitude were specifically described, and differentiated in the Bible, and this culture of slavery existed well up into the 19th century in various forms in Western culture in part the lack of guidance in the Bible to forbid slavery. This is also true of Islam.

It's always complicated. Everything is complicated. As the saying goes, the less you know, the
greater the opinion.
When asked why the bible accepted divorce, for instance, Jesus said divorce was "from the
fathers, but from the beginning it was not meant to be." In other words the "fathers": wanted
certain things. God said He didn't want a monarch in Israel, or a temple. But here the bible
speaks of the line of David to Jesus and of the sacred temple.

So saying there were slaves in the bible might not mean what some people want it to mean.

In Christianity there is just one proper reference to slavery, Onesimus. Paul wrote to his master
and urged him to treat his slave as a "brother." And Israel is reminded, in its treatment of slaves
that itself was once a slave in Egypt.

It's also complicated because Christians are to obey the laws of the land. And to see themselves
as being "servants" of God.

And one of my favorite verses, "Whosoever leads into captivity will be led into captivity."
 

BilliardsBall

Veteran Member
At least one part of what they try to beg "most varieties of slavery" out of here is 100% present and accounted for in The Bible: "slaves as property and commodities". This can easily be demonstrated by the infamous "Exodus 21:20-21" - "for he IS HIS MONEY." A human being, being referred to as "money" BY THE BIBLE. I don't care the rest of the context, The Bible names humans as capable of being held as property and as "money." That's what it does, clear as day.


The article at this point goes on to say that examination of LEGAL documents indicated the majority of types of slavery they are talking about. But does this include slaves taken as spoils of war or purchased from other lands? Would there be legal documents (i.e. contracts) drawn up for people taken as spoils of war or purchased from foreigners? Point being - perhaps the majority of legally documented cases of slavery were of the types of "indentured servitude" that keeps being argued for, but did those documents even represent the majority of other sources of slaves as well? Were there documents in those cases? This isn't mentioned.

The person who wrote this also seems to cite unrelated sources of information that are "from the general time period" and then just apply it to the early Biblical societies because it is convenient. For example, they back up this quote:

With this source/info:

Note the cultures/peoples mentioned in the source quote. Were "Egyptians" Jewish? Were the people of Meopotamia Jewish? Was the Hittite empire Jewish? Persian? "Oriental?" The Ancient Hebrews were nomadic to begin with, and traveled within lands such as Mesopotamia, but this quote does not seem to refer to these nomadic people doing the warring and conquering and not taking slaves. Those people are not mentioned. So how is this evidence against the idea that the HEBREWS took few slaves in their conquests? They follow up with a general statement "The same, of course, can be said of Israel." and one example where when entire cities surrendered, their people were made into a vassal state to Israel. But when an entire city suddenly falls under your control, it only makes sense that you aren't going to take all the people out of it, and ship them off to be slaves everywhere. I feel like this is a poor example, and doesn't necessarily relieve the pressure of scrutiny.

There are references in even the sources that admit that masters had quite a range of control over their "slaves" - regardless whether they were being beaten or not, the master was granted control over many aspects of the slave's life. For example, the right to own various types of property was at the master's discretion. According to the source material, slaves were also prohibited from engaging in litigation against their masters. So why all this attempt to paint slaves of the time as being "like family" or "voluntary" - when those things (if cases like that existed) were most certainly anecdotal? Not all slaves were "so happy" and "properly treated," and The Bible does indeed offer up the idea that one can be pretty nasty to one's slaves and not face punishment. Stuff like this: So what? So there were some cases where the "slaves" ended up being dependent on their master's, and didn't so much mind because their relationship was amicable. So what? Does this mean ALL slave-master relationships were like this? No, not at all. And The Bible, as I stated, offers up some dastardly practices that one can undergo with a slave and not face punishment. So you can very well bet that cases like ones where the slave died from the beating after a few days DID HAPPEN, and therefore they needed legal recourse for those instances. Hence the reason they wrote about it in The Bible. And any master that had beaten his slaves so much that they died after a few days could ALWAYS EASILY point to The Bible, shrug his shoulders and skip away whistling care-free. And there's the problem. Whether or not some people treated their slaves well, or didn't beat them to death, others did, and The Bible specifically names it as morally/economically/socially permissible.

This is all I can think about when I read Exodus 21:20-21:
Judge: "So, your slave died, correct?"
Master: "Yes your honor."
Judge: "And it says here that you beat him severely, and he died as a result of injuries from the beating, correct?"
Master: "Well... yes. Yes, your honor."
Judge: "Yes indeed... a very grave matter we have here. Although... hmmm... it says also here that the slave didn't die for 3 whole days. Is that right?"
Master: "Yes, your honor. We lost him on the third day."
Judge: "Well, my condolences sir."
Master: "Thank you. Although, to be sure, he wasn't really my friend or anything, I mean... I don't really beat my friends like that."
Judge: "Oh, no no - you misunderstood... I meant my condolences for the money you didn't make during those 3 days that your slave was laid up, dying. Not to mention whatever cost and investment you had in the slave himself."
Master: "Oh! Ah, yes. That was indeed unfortunate."
Judge: "Well, good sir, it seems to me as though you have suffered enough from this unfortunate situation. No need to go punishing you further. We all know how important money is."
Master: "Thank you, your honor. May I go now? I need to get to the market in a neighboring nation, so I can buy myself a replacement slave."
Judge: Yes, you are free to go, obviously. Go with God, my good man."
Master: "Always your honor."

Clearly you did not read the entire article (as predicted).
 

BilliardsBall

Veteran Member
Indentured servitude was reserved for Hebrew slaves, other slaves were personal property that could be passed down to your heirs. You could beat them and so long as they didn't die within a couple of days, there were no consequences for the owner.

Clearly, you didn't read the article in its entirety (as I predicted).
 

BilliardsBall

Veteran Member
No need to go with 10,000 words. Simple specific citations concerning the slavery of foreigners is enough.

Leviticus 25:45
Moreover of the children of the strangers that do sojourn among you, of them shall ye buy, and of their families that are with you, which they begat in your land: and they shall be your possession.

smite every male thereof with the edge of the sword:

Deuteronomy 20:14
But the women, and the little ones, and the cattle, and all that is in the city, even all the spoil thereof, shalt thou take unto thyself; and thou shalt eat the spoil of thine enemies, which the LORD thy God hath given thee.


Deuteronomy 20:15
Thus shalt thou do unto all the cities which are very far off from thee, which are not of the cities of these nations.


Deuteronomy 20:16
But of the cities of these people, which the LORD thy God doth give thee for an inheritance, thou shalt save alive nothing that breatheth:

There is more . . .

As predicted, you refused to read the article in its entirety, which includes the above citations and more, spelled out for the rebellious.
 

MikeDwight

Well-Known Member
Is anyone even in the world of productivity anymore and the world of compromises? The entire history of man is evolving relationships of power and trust. Biblical times are only going to use 'servants' for a huge variety of roles and situations. Somebody tells you what the overall plan to get done is. Its Specifically the Union side of the United States getting us all to feel good about "Employers" And "Employment" with setbacks, with setbacks from the New York Sweatshops, triangle shirtwaist factory fire, ILGWU and Woodrow Wilson. It'll have setbacks again.
 
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A Vestigial Mote

Well-Known Member
Clearly, you didn't read the article in its entirety (as I predicted).
Clearly you don't want to comment on my post with anything real/substantial. I feel very strongly that this is because, ultimately, you know you have no real leg to stand on in this argument.

I do admit, the post/email/whatever-the-hell-it-was was EXTREMELY long. Unnecessarily long, if you ask me. This should be a fairly simple matter. If there is an adequate explanation that displays that slavery during these Biblical times was "not so bad" AND you have PROPER evidence to back up that statement, it should just be a matter of BRIEFLY explaining what that form of slavery was and then PRESENTING THE EVIDENCE. But that isn't what you have, is it? You have a source hemming and hawing ALL OVER THE PLACE. Ranging from what tangentially related, "heathen" cultures did when they won wars or bought slaves to talking about legal documents that DO NOT actually represent the real, human interactions and relationships that these people had, nor do they explicitly inform you how these people were treated.

I'll go back and read the rest of your insanely long, boring-as-hell post/email/whatever, from whoever the hell wrote it, and see if it contains some miraculous "twist" that suddenly makes everything I mentioned in my post (that you also effectively IGNORED, let's not forget - Mr. "Pot Calling the Kettle Black"), but I definitely am not going to be holding my breath. I'll let you know what I find - and believe me, if it isn't the "revelation" you claim it is, I'll let you know that too.
 

A Vestigial Mote

Well-Known Member
Clearly you did not read the entire article (as predicted).
So, as promised, I read the rest. Here are my findings:
So, I notice a lot of claims like this, and support with quotes from The Bible about other laws that were supposed to be followed:
The 'slavery' of the OT was essentially designed to serve the poor!
Can you address how this cancels out the violence that is supported by law, or the equating of people to "money" in Exodus 21:20-21? Can you please explain that to me?
And assuming statements like this:
in the OT context, this benefit is the SOLE JUSTIFICATION for even allowing a watered-down, temporary, semi-servanthood
Note how the author of this insane amount of (mostly useless) information just keeps trying to use more and more terms to make sure the reader believes that the slavery the Hebrews may have practices, as referenced in The Bible was "watered down", hell they almost make it out to be that the Masters were actually SAVING the slaves by taking them "under their wing" or something. Please explain how this excuses The Bible from equating people with "money." Please explain how this, in any way, excuses The Bible for describing the conditions by which you can beat another human to the point of death and not suffer any consequences yourself.
And more like this:
Forced enslavement of Hebrews was punishable by death.
Please explain how this excuses The Bible from equating people with "money."
Or this:
Although most of these arrangements were limited to six years in length (e.g. Deut 15.12 above), continuation of this relationship was possible, but ONLY AS a strictly voluntary act of the 'slave'
Note the fun use of quotes to try and denote that slavery here isn't really slavery. Please tell me how the use of quotes like this excuses The Bible from describing the conditions under which one can beat another human being to death and get away with it - because the "six years and voluntary continuation" bit certainly doesn't do that... so I am figuring these quotes must have something to do with it.
And then there is this whole huge detour that this UTTER CRAP takes that talks about daughters being sold by their fathers to "save the household" and tries to make that out to be some noble thing, and talking about how this isn't really slavery either, but more a "better" situation for the daughter to be in because she is then some well-to-do neighbors concubine, etc. EVEN IF I take none of it as "slavery" - let's say I grant that selling your daughter off to someone isn't slavery - even IF I accept that, guess what none of these girls was given? A choice. We're still left with laws and a system that traps probably nearly ALL girls in these societies into situations they didn't necessarily want to be in, but had no choice in the matter.
In the ancient world, a father, driven by poverty, might sell his daughter into a well-to-do family in order to ensure her future security.
not sold into slavery for general purposes, but only as a bride, and therefore with provisions restricting her owner-husband concerning her welfare if he should become dissatisfied with the union
Some Hebrew fathers thought it more advantageous for their daughters to become concubines of well-to-do neighbors than to become the wives of men in their own social class.
So, these girls are going somewhere with someone they hardly know, to be obligated to have sex with these people, and this is just "okay" because "the law" provided that they should be cared for? Do you think that law held up in ALL circumstances? Are you naive? Aren't you the one saying that all people are fallen, and sinners, and have all these predispositions to bad behavior? And you want to tell me that all of this is entirely "on the level?" Honestly... reading some of this stuff, it is probably WORSE than the slavery stuff in The Bible! Like this, WHAT THE HELL is this?
When you acquire a Hebrew slave... if his master gave him a wife, and she has borne him children, the wife and her children shall belong to the master, and he shall leave alone.
It literally says that if the "master" procured the wife of the slave for him, then that woman and any children the slave and the woman had are THE MASTER'S property! The guy who wrote this first recognizes this passage, quotes is, and then sets up like he's going to handily/easily refute how absolutely HORRIBLE this idea is and says this smug bit of garbage:
Sure, pal--I'll be glad to (but you'll regret asking me to interrupt the flow of this, with my typically verbose response…smile)
But when he "Defends" this passage/law, all he does is talk about how any wife to a slave must have also been a slave, and therefore was the master's property. Ummm... and this excuses the situation how? Well, let's see, the guy who wrote this crap says:
So, this should not be a serious issue for us.
which I guess is supposed to take care of it from his point of view. This guy is completely desensitized by his religious zeal to anything he's saying, obviously. When he added that gem about how this "should not be a serious issue", he had just got done quoting this:
In the ancient Near East is was a common practice for a master to mate a slave with a foreign bondwoman solely for the purpose of siring 'house born' slaves.
So apparently it is just fine and dandy for "master's" to force slaves to go have sex with strange women, in order to produce a child to then "own" also. What the hell is going on here? If anything, this guy is just digging deeper and deeper into a pit of heinous acts and possibilities that I would liken to some sick, twisted cultural underground and black market of sex and debauchery. I mean... if there were a society today doing these types of things, you Christians would be ALL OVER IT. Pointing to it as a sign that the world has turned to crap, and how everything is going downhill and "the end times are coming!" But, see this stuff in The Bible and it's "Oh, but everybody loved each other back then, so it's okay." You are seriously deluded. Just as deluded as the idiot who wrote all this crap up. Get with the program, man. Stop lying to yourself. I'm dead serious.
The general scholarly assessment is that this domestic "slavery" was not very atrocious, went way beyond "property only", and instead created family-like bonds:
Once again, please explain to me how this excuses The Bible from equating people with "money" and describing how you can beat another human to death and get away with it.
ALL servants were required to take the Sabbath day off--just like the masters.
Please explain to me how this excuses The Bible from equating people with "money" and describing how you can beat another human to death and get away with it.
And then the piece that is apparently in there to excuse Exodus 21:20-21:
"The second case involved a master striking his slave, male or female. Since the slave did not die immediately as a result of this act of using the rod (not a lethal weapon, however) but tarried for "a day or two" (v. 21), the master was given the benefit of the doubt; he was judged to have struck the slave with disciplinary and not homicidal intentions. This law is unprecedented in the ancient world where a master could treat his slave as he pleased.
So... this passage may actually have been "unparalleled in its humanitarian considerations." FOR THE TIME - let's even just grant that. The Bible was written to withstand ALL times, was it not? So, we have a book that exposes that some pretty horrible stuff has gone on, and instead of challenging it outright, it instead tries to soften the horror of it all a little. Do you get where I am coming from here? In many of our societies now, we would take a law like this being written onto the books as a serious backslide into uncivilized behavior, and an affront to our humanitarian efforts. And yet, this book is supposed to be the instruction manual for the ages, right? So how is it that this stuff made it into the book? How is this relevant for all times? Do you think we should adhere to these practices now? Should we revert to holding people, in our estimation, as "money?" Should we be allowed to beat our "money" for disciplinary reasons? If the "money" should eventually die as a result of our disciplinary actions, should we then be allowed to get out of any punishment for the act ourselves? If not, then why not? Isn't this all perfectly acceptable? How did your guy put it? "It should not be a serious issue." Right?
It is a remarkable assertion of human rights over property rights.
This is actually listed as a point defending Exodus 21: 20-21, within which a human being was just equated to "money." You'll have to forgive me if I am not on board with this. Not going to happen.
Summary: It should be QUITE CLEAR from the above, that the institution in the Mosaic law involving voluntary, fixed-term, flexible, and protected servant-laborer roles was unlike "western", chattel labor in almost ALL RESPECTS.
About as clear as mud. The law, as written, fosters certain ideas about people's relative worth and opens the possibilities for humans to own other humans. This is what it does. Period. And that is, in no way, "good." You, yourself, would probably already claim that people are prone to do terrible things to one another - to lie, cheat, steal - predisposed to sinning. Do you seriously want THE LAW to contain things that put such things into a light that casts them as acceptable? Like referring to other people as "money?" Drawing lines between people - this person can be owned, and this one can't? This person is "money," while this person is the owner of "money?" This person can beat the other for disciplinary reasons, and this other person cannot even lift a finger in protest to the law. Remember the part about slaves being unable to seek litigation against their masters? It's in there. And even that right there almost assuredly means that SOMEONE ELSE would have to advocate for the slave in any and all disputes against the master. They probably couldn't even take matters of abuse of the law to law officials themselves! And THIS is the system your guy wants us to think was hunky dory. I'm not buying it. You shouldn't either. That you have says A LOT about your character, honestly. If you think it doesn't, then go peddle your wares elsewhere. You are not welcome in my camp.
 
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