Desert Snake
Veteran Member
Yohanan, John, in
John 1:1-10
John is saying that Jehovah is God, and God manifested as Jesus.
Elsewhere in Scripture, there is a Yeshua who says, 'my g-d', and 'my g-d and your g-d'.
Now , at first read, this might seem like Jesus is just talking about the other aspect of God, the ABBA.
However, there is a problem.
Because of Johns usage of Hebrew description, in
John 1:1-10, John is thusly using the word 'God', as we would presume, 'elohim', [since John is saying that Jesus is the manifestation of Jehovah, the 'Lord' aspect of God.
Now, as 'Lord' aspect of God, Jesus would not be saying 'my g-d and your g-d', He would say, the ABBA, or such. Describing His position in the Divinity, if He is the Lord.
We then have Jesus at John 17, affirming His position in the Deific configuration, making Him elohim, in other words.
•
So, Jesus , calling Himself, Deific, John 17,
And, Jesus saying 'my g-d and your g-d', doesn't make sense.
Aside from belief, religious belief, John is using Hebrew wording when He calls Jesus the manifestation of God, and Yohanan is clearly calling 'Jehovah', his God.
So why would John, write what is a confusing mix up of wording, ie the use of 'g-d', as separate from Jesus,
When John literally calls Jesus, the manifestation of Jehovah,
He was in the world, and the world knew Him not.
●
There are thusly either two different yeshuas, and John writes about both, or, something else is entirely wrong, here.
The theology is literally different, by the different usage of 'g-d'-, as a word.
John wouldn't present both, because they don't have the same meaning.
[Two yeshuas, [how did the other yeshua get quoted
[John would not contradict his own Hebrew wording, thus creating a contradiction of meaning.
So, there are variables. What we do know is that there can't be this contradiction, in order to read Scripture in a straightforward manner.
John 1:1-10
John is saying that Jehovah is God, and God manifested as Jesus.
Elsewhere in Scripture, there is a Yeshua who says, 'my g-d', and 'my g-d and your g-d'.
Now , at first read, this might seem like Jesus is just talking about the other aspect of God, the ABBA.
However, there is a problem.
Because of Johns usage of Hebrew description, in
John 1:1-10, John is thusly using the word 'God', as we would presume, 'elohim', [since John is saying that Jesus is the manifestation of Jehovah, the 'Lord' aspect of God.
Now, as 'Lord' aspect of God, Jesus would not be saying 'my g-d and your g-d', He would say, the ABBA, or such. Describing His position in the Divinity, if He is the Lord.
We then have Jesus at John 17, affirming His position in the Deific configuration, making Him elohim, in other words.
•
So, Jesus , calling Himself, Deific, John 17,
And, Jesus saying 'my g-d and your g-d', doesn't make sense.
Aside from belief, religious belief, John is using Hebrew wording when He calls Jesus the manifestation of God, and Yohanan is clearly calling 'Jehovah', his God.
So why would John, write what is a confusing mix up of wording, ie the use of 'g-d', as separate from Jesus,
When John literally calls Jesus, the manifestation of Jehovah,
He was in the world, and the world knew Him not.
●
There are thusly either two different yeshuas, and John writes about both, or, something else is entirely wrong, here.
The theology is literally different, by the different usage of 'g-d'-, as a word.
John wouldn't present both, because they don't have the same meaning.
[Two yeshuas, [how did the other yeshua get quoted
[John would not contradict his own Hebrew wording, thus creating a contradiction of meaning.
So, there are variables. What we do know is that there can't be this contradiction, in order to read Scripture in a straightforward manner.
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