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Colossians 1:16 Jesus the Almighty, [John 1:3, Jesus is God incarnated

calm

Active Member
Well thank you, now I have something to work with. I actually relish such opportunities. :)

So the "hundreds of times" we supposedly included the name of "Jehovah", we were in error....?

You do understand that the Jews had ceased to use God's name a long time before Jesus came to fulfill his mission? They had no authority from God to do so and they knew it.....that is why you will find the tetragrammaton in the Hebrew text to this day, but because they would substitute the title "Adonai" (Lord) when they spoke it, the pronunciation was eventually lost through lack of use.

Do you have a problem with "Jesus" name? Since there are no "J" names in Hebrew and you apparently have no problem seeing Jesus as God, why would you balk at "Jehovah" (the English translation of the divine name) and not also balk at "Jesus"? (the English translation of his name) Do you see the inconsistency? You would have to go and alter every Bible with "J" names in it because the majority of them incorporate the divine name.

So what about the tetragrammaton in the Greek Septuagint, which was the Hebrew scriptures translated into Greek, and used by Jews and also by Jesus apostles and disciple in the first century. Was the divine name found in the Septuagint?

"
23

The divine name in the ancient Hebrew letters used before the Babylonian exile.

25

The divine name in the Hebrew letters used after the Babylonian exile."

"...for centuries scholars thought that the Tetragrammaton was absent from manuscripts of the Greek Septuagint translation of the Old Testament, as well as from manuscripts of the New Testament. Then in the mid-20th century, something remarkable came to the attention of scholars—some very old fragments of the Greek Septuagint version that existed in Jesus’ day had been discovered. Those fragments contain the personal name of God, written in Hebrew characters."

This is a picture of the Greek Septuagint (below second from the left) with the Hebrew Tetragrammaton appearing in the Greek text in unaltered Hebrew characters....

35


It was humans who removed and substituted a title ("Lord") for the divine name...not God. He at no time told the Jews to stop uttering his name. Since they were told in Exodus 3:15 that this name was to be used by the generations of his people "forever".....they clearly let him down in this respect (and a lot of others respects as well.)

In the Septuagint pictured above we see that they did not substitute God's name in the Septuagint, but kept it......in the 5th century Axexandrinus Codex however, you can see the substitution of KC and KY (meaning "kyrios" or "Lord") for the divine name in Deuteronomy 18:15-16. Again with no authorization from God to alter his word.....so if you want to start going on about alterations...you need to go back way further than the NWT.
All we did was put it back where it originally was....where it belongs.

"Some Bible scholars acknowledge that it seems likely that the divine name appeared in Hebrew Scripture quotations found in the Christian Greek Scriptures.
Under the heading “Tetragrammaton in the New Testament,” The Anchor Bible Dictionary states: “There is some evidence that the Tetragrammaton, the Divine Name, Yahweh, appeared in some or all of the O[ld] T[estament] quotations in the N[ew] T[estament] when the NT documents were first penned.” Scholar George Howard says: “Since the Tetragram was still written in the copies of the Greek Bible [the Septuagint] which made up the Scriptures of the early church, it is reasonable to believe that the N[ew] T[estament] writers, when quoting from Scripture, preserved the Tetragram within the biblical text.”

Recognized Bible translators have used God’s name in the Christian Greek Scriptures.
Some of these translators did so long before the New World Translation was produced.

The manuscripts of the New Testament that we possess today are not the originals. The original manuscripts written by Matthew, John, Paul, and others were well used, and no doubt they quickly wore out. Hence, copies were made, and when those wore out, further copies were made. Of the thousands of copies of the New Testament in existence today, most were made at least two centuries after the originals were penned. It appears that by that time those copying the manuscripts either replaced the Tetragrammaton with Kuʹri·os or Kyʹri·os, the Greek word for “Lord,” or copied from manuscripts where this had been done.

Jesus used God’s name and made it known to others. (John 17:6, 11, 12, 26) Jesus plainly stated: “I have come in the name of my Father.” He also stressed that his works were done “in the name of [his] Father.” In fact, Jesus’ own name means “Jehovah Is Salvation.”—John 5:43; 10:25.

The divine name appears in its abbreviated form in the Greek Scriptures. At Revelation 19:1, 3, 4, 6, the divine name is embedded in the expression “Alleluia,” or “Hallelujah.” This expression literally means “Praise Jah, you people!” Jah is a contraction of the name Jehovah.

About the middle of the first century C.E., the disciple James said to the elders in Jerusalem: “Symeon has related thoroughly how God for the first time turned his attention to the nations to take out of them a people for his name.” (Acts 15:14) Does it sound logical to you that James would make such a statement if nobody in the first century knew or used God’s name?

When copies of the Septuagint were discovered that used the divine name rather than Kyʹri·os (Lord), it became evident to the translators that in Jesus’ day copies of the earlier Scriptures in Greek—and of course those in Hebrew—did contain the divine name. Apparently, the God-dishonoring tradition of removing the divine name from Greek manuscripts developed only later."

Excerpts from....
Should the Name Jehovah Appear in the New Testament? — Watchtower ONLINE LIBRARY

A5 The Divine Name in the Christian Greek Scriptures — Watchtower ONLINE LIBRARY

I believe that the divine name of God belongs in the Bible, where it was originally found, and that God has given it to his people, as indicated in Acts 15:14.
The name Jehovah is a fictitious name of the catholic church, in the 14th or 15th century catholic theologians mixed the title adOnAi with YHWH and from this came "Jehovah".
The name Jehovah is not only wrong but also blasphemy, because Jehovah means disaster. Strong's Hebrew: 1943. הֹוָה (hovah) -- a ruin, disaster
Yad(Y)-Hey(AH)-UaU(U)-Hey(AH) are the 4 letters of the name.
If you connect all the letters now, then the name Yahuah comes out. That's the true name of the father. btw. Yahuah means Behold (a) Hand, Behold (a) Nail
 

blü 2

Veteran Member
Premium Member

John 1:2 He was in the beginning with God; 3 all things were made through him, and without him was not anything made that was made.​

The context here is gnostic (as it is in Paul; but not in the synoptics): God is absolutely pure and remote, and accordingly entirely immaterial. It is Jesus, just as in gnosticism it's the demiurge, who creates the material world and then acts as mediator between God and that world.

The likeness to Paul's position is seen in [c] in the next quote you cite.

Only Paul and the author of John think Jesus existed in heaven before coming to earth. By contrast, the author of Mark thought Jesus was an ordinary Jew until God adopted him as his son on the occasion of his baptism, on the model that God had adopted David as his son in Psalm 2:7 (a point made explicit in Acts 13:33). And while Matthew's and Luke's Jesuses were conceived of the Holy Ghost, they didn't exist before that conception.

Colossians 1:16
Bold and letters added by me, of course. You referred to :

Colossians 1: 15 [a] He is the image of the invisible God, the first-born of all creation; 16 [c] for in him all things were created, in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or principalities or authorities--all things were created through him and for him. 17 He is before all things, and in him all things hold together. 18 He is the head of the body, the church; he is the beginning, the first-born from the dead, that in everything he might be pre-eminent. 19 [d] For in him all the fulness of God was pleased to dwell,


Note that Paul clearly distinguishes between the Father as God, and Jesus as Lord eg

1 Corinthians 8:6 yet for us there is one God, the Father, from whom are all things and for whom we exist, and one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom are all things and through whom we exist.
Philippians 2:9 [e] Therefore God has highly exalted him and bestowed on him the name which is above every name, 10 that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, in heaven and on earth and under the earth, 11 and every tongue confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.​
That's why next to the passage you quoted in Colossians, Jesus is [a] the image of God. not God himself; and why Jesus is the first-born of Creation, not the Creator. The context of [c] is gnostic, just as it is in John above. In [d] we have the distinction underlined again: God is pleased to 'dwell' in Jesus. In [e] God exalts Jesus, not himself.
Hebrews 1:8.

Hebrews 1:8 But of the Son he says, "Thy throne, O God, is for ever and ever, the righteous scepter is the scepter of thy kingdom.​
Paul is quoting the Psalms:

Psalm 45:6 Thy throne, O God, is for ever and ever: the scepter of thy kingdom is a right scepter.​
This is addressed to King David, and 'God' is an honorific which the psalmist bestows on him.
2 Corinthians 6:18

2 Corinthians 6:18 and I will be a father to you, and you shall be my sons and daughters, says the Lord Almighty."​
No, that's not a reference to Jesus ─ it's a reference to God.

Note that nowhere in the NT does Jesus claim to be God. As mentioned, with Paul and John (but not Mark, Matthew or Luke) he claims to have pre-existed with God. Instead, in all of them he expressly denies he's God. I gave you Paul's distinction between Lord and God above; in the gospels, and this is only a small sample, Jesus says:

Mark 12: 29 Jesus answered, “The first is, ‘Hear, O Israel: The Lord our God, the Lord is one;” ... 32 And the scribe said to him, “You are right, Teacher; you have truly said that he is one, and there is no other but he;

Matthew 20:23 “to sit at my right hand and at my left is not mine to grant, but it is for those for whom it has been prepared by my Father.”

Matthew 24:36 “But of that day and hour no one knows, not even the angels of heaven, nor the Son, but the Father only.”

Luke 18:19 “Why do you call me good? No one is good but God alone.”

John 8:42 “I proceeded and came forth from God; I came not of my own accord, but he sent me.”

John 17:3 “And this is eternal life, that they know thee the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom thou hast sent.”

John 20:17 “I am ascending to my Father and your Father, to my God and your God.”​
The desire of Jesus' followers to elevate him to full God status arose by the second century, and various ways of doing this were proposed and rejected. One was simply to declare that he was a god, but that was politically unacceptable since a charge of polytheism would mean they were like the pagans. Another was to declare that Jesus and the Ghost were simply two manifestations of the one God (as in the Tanakh the ruach is a manifestation of God) but that wasn't acceptable either. God is not a firm with three partners. God is not a corporation with a board of three. Not till the fourth century CE was the Trinity doctrine as presently formed invented. It says there is one God who is three persons who are separate and distinct identities and each of them is 100% of God. Now obviously 100%+100%+100%=300%=3 gods. The Trinity doctrine nonetheless says this isn't so. Nor is God made up of fractions so the doctrine also denies that God is ⅓ Father + ⅓ Jesus + ⅓ Ghost. Instead, the churches declare that the Trinity doctrine is 'a mystery in the strict sense' in that 'it cannot be known by unaided human reason apart from revelation nor cogently demonstrated by reason once it has been revealed'. A moment's thought will tell you that another word for something with those qualities is 'a nonsense'.
 

shmogie

Well-Known Member
Well thank you, now I have something to work with. I actually relish such opportunities. :)

So the "hundreds of times" we supposedly included the name of "Jehovah", we were in error....?

You do understand that the Jews had ceased to use God's name a long time before Jesus came to fulfill his mission? They had no authority from God to do so and they knew it.....that is why you will find the tetragrammaton in the Hebrew text to this day, but because they would substitute the title "Adonai" (Lord) when they spoke it, the pronunciation was eventually lost through lack of use.

Do you have a problem with "Jesus" name? Since there are no "J" names in Hebrew and you apparently have no problem seeing Jesus as God, why would you balk at "Jehovah" (the English translation of the divine name) and not also balk at "Jesus"? (the English translation of his name) Do you see the inconsistency? You would have to go and alter every Bible with "J" names in it because the majority of them incorporate the divine name.

So what about the tetragrammaton in the Greek Septuagint, which was the Hebrew scriptures translated into Greek, and used by Jews and also by Jesus apostles and disciple in the first century. Was the divine name found in the Septuagint?

"
23

The divine name in the ancient Hebrew letters used before the Babylonian exile.

25

The divine name in the Hebrew letters used after the Babylonian exile."

"...for centuries scholars thought that the Tetragrammaton was absent from manuscripts of the Greek Septuagint translation of the Old Testament, as well as from manuscripts of the New Testament. Then in the mid-20th century, something remarkable came to the attention of scholars—some very old fragments of the Greek Septuagint version that existed in Jesus’ day had been discovered. Those fragments contain the personal name of God, written in Hebrew characters."

This is a picture of the Greek Septuagint (below second from the left) with the Hebrew Tetragrammaton appearing in the Greek text in unaltered Hebrew characters....

35


It was humans who removed and substituted a title ("Lord") for the divine name...not God. He at no time told the Jews to stop uttering his name. Since they were told in Exodus 3:15 that this name was to be used by the generations of his people "forever".....they clearly let him down in this respect (and a lot of others respects as well.)

In the Septuagint pictured above we see that they did not substitute God's name in the Septuagint, but kept it......in the 5th century Axexandrinus Codex however, you can see the substitution of KC and KY (meaning "kyrios" or "Lord") for the divine name in Deuteronomy 18:15-16. Again with no authorization from God to alter his word.....so if you want to start going on about alterations...you need to go back way further than the NWT.
All we did was put it back where it originally was....where it belongs.

"Some Bible scholars acknowledge that it seems likely that the divine name appeared in Hebrew Scripture quotations found in the Christian Greek Scriptures.
Under the heading “Tetragrammaton in the New Testament,” The Anchor Bible Dictionary states: “There is some evidence that the Tetragrammaton, the Divine Name, Yahweh, appeared in some or all of the O[ld] T[estament] quotations in the N[ew] T[estament] when the NT documents were first penned.” Scholar George Howard says: “Since the Tetragram was still written in the copies of the Greek Bible [the Septuagint] which made up the Scriptures of the early church, it is reasonable to believe that the N[ew] T[estament] writers, when quoting from Scripture, preserved the Tetragram within the biblical text.”

Recognized Bible translators have used God’s name in the Christian Greek Scriptures.
Some of these translators did so long before the New World Translation was produced.

The manuscripts of the New Testament that we possess today are not the originals. The original manuscripts written by Matthew, John, Paul, and others were well used, and no doubt they quickly wore out. Hence, copies were made, and when those wore out, further copies were made. Of the thousands of copies of the New Testament in existence today, most were made at least two centuries after the originals were penned. It appears that by that time those copying the manuscripts either replaced the Tetragrammaton with Kuʹri·os or Kyʹri·os, the Greek word for “Lord,” or copied from manuscripts where this had been done.

Jesus used God’s name and made it known to others. (John 17:6, 11, 12, 26) Jesus plainly stated: “I have come in the name of my Father.” He also stressed that his works were done “in the name of [his] Father.” In fact, Jesus’ own name means “Jehovah Is Salvation.”—John 5:43; 10:25.

The divine name appears in its abbreviated form in the Greek Scriptures. At Revelation 19:1, 3, 4, 6, the divine name is embedded in the expression “Alleluia,” or “Hallelujah.” This expression literally means “Praise Jah, you people!” Jah is a contraction of the name Jehovah.

About the middle of the first century C.E., the disciple James said to the elders in Jerusalem: “Symeon has related thoroughly how God for the first time turned his attention to the nations to take out of them a people for his name.” (Acts 15:14) Does it sound logical to you that James would make such a statement if nobody in the first century knew or used God’s name?

When copies of the Septuagint were discovered that used the divine name rather than Kyʹri·os (Lord), it became evident to the translators that in Jesus’ day copies of the earlier Scriptures in Greek—and of course those in Hebrew—did contain the divine name. Apparently, the God-dishonoring tradition of removing the divine name from Greek manuscripts developed only later."

Excerpts from....
Should the Name Jehovah Appear in the New Testament? — Watchtower ONLINE LIBRARY

A5 The Divine Name in the Christian Greek Scriptures — Watchtower ONLINE LIBRARY

I believe that the divine name of God belongs in the Bible, where it was originally found, and that God has given it to his people, as indicated in Acts 15:14.
What you believe is irrelevant.

Jehovah was never used in the NT. It was not used in the Septuigiant.

It was not used in the Koine


Greek original source documents

Jehovah is not the name of God.

Irrefutable facts

Your denomination substituted it for the original words.

I know for a fact that the name is used with reverence and respect, but that isn`t the issue.

The issue is that your denomination uses the name as one of it`s badges to wear proving you are Gods chosen "organization".

You changed the Bible, then point to the changes you made as Biblical proof that only you honor the name of God, which was never His name in the first place.
 

shmogie

Well-Known Member
Well thank you, now I have something to work with. I actually relish such opportunities. :)

So the "hundreds of times" we supposedly included the name of "Jehovah", we were in error....?

You do understand that the Jews had ceased to use God's name a long time before Jesus came to fulfill his mission? They had no authority from God to do so and they knew it.....that is why you will find the tetragrammaton in the Hebrew text to this day, but because they would substitute the title "Adonai" (Lord) when they spoke it, the pronunciation was eventually lost through lack of use.

Do you have a problem with "Jesus" name? Since there are no "J" names in Hebrew and you apparently have no problem seeing Jesus as God, why would you balk at "Jehovah" (the English translation of the divine name) and not also balk at "Jesus"? (the English translation of his name) Do you see the inconsistency? You would have to go and alter every Bible with "J" names in it because the majority of them incorporate the divine name.

So what about the tetragrammaton in the Greek Septuagint, which was the Hebrew scriptures translated into Greek, and used by Jews and also by Jesus apostles and disciple in the first century. Was the divine name found in the Septuagint?

"
23

The divine name in the ancient Hebrew letters used before the Babylonian exile.

25

The divine name in the Hebrew letters used after the Babylonian exile."

"...for centuries scholars thought that the Tetragrammaton was absent from manuscripts of the Greek Septuagint translation of the Old Testament, as well as from manuscripts of the New Testament. Then in the mid-20th century, something remarkable came to the attention of scholars—some very old fragments of the Greek Septuagint version that existed in Jesus’ day had been discovered. Those fragments contain the personal name of God, written in Hebrew characters."

This is a picture of the Greek Septuagint (below second from the left) with the Hebrew Tetragrammaton appearing in the Greek text in unaltered Hebrew characters....

35


It was humans who removed and substituted a title ("Lord") for the divine name...not God. He at no time told the Jews to stop uttering his name. Since they were told in Exodus 3:15 that this name was to be used by the generations of his people "forever".....they clearly let him down in this respect (and a lot of others respects as well.)

In the Septuagint pictured above we see that they did not substitute God's name in the Septuagint, but kept it......in the 5th century Axexandrinus Codex however, you can see the substitution of KC and KY (meaning "kyrios" or "Lord") for the divine name in Deuteronomy 18:15-16. Again with no authorization from God to alter his word.....so if you want to start going on about alterations...you need to go back way further than the NWT.
All we did was put it back where it originally was....where it belongs.

"Some Bible scholars acknowledge that it seems likely that the divine name appeared in Hebrew Scripture quotations found in the Christian Greek Scriptures.
Under the heading “Tetragrammaton in the New Testament,” The Anchor Bible Dictionary states: “There is some evidence that the Tetragrammaton, the Divine Name, Yahweh, appeared in some or all of the O[ld] T[estament] quotations in the N[ew] T[estament] when the NT documents were first penned.” Scholar George Howard says: “Since the Tetragram was still written in the copies of the Greek Bible [the Septuagint] which made up the Scriptures of the early church, it is reasonable to believe that the N[ew] T[estament] writers, when quoting from Scripture, preserved the Tetragram within the biblical text.”

Recognized Bible translators have used God’s name in the Christian Greek Scriptures.
Some of these translators did so long before the New World Translation was produced.

The manuscripts of the New Testament that we possess today are not the originals. The original manuscripts written by Matthew, John, Paul, and others were well used, and no doubt they quickly wore out. Hence, copies were made, and when those wore out, further copies were made. Of the thousands of copies of the New Testament in existence today, most were made at least two centuries after the originals were penned. It appears that by that time those copying the manuscripts either replaced the Tetragrammaton with Kuʹri·os or Kyʹri·os, the Greek word for “Lord,” or copied from manuscripts where this had been done.

Jesus used God’s name and made it known to others. (John 17:6, 11, 12, 26) Jesus plainly stated: “I have come in the name of my Father.” He also stressed that his works were done “in the name of [his] Father.” In fact, Jesus’ own name means “Jehovah Is Salvation.”—John 5:43; 10:25.

The divine name appears in its abbreviated form in the Greek Scriptures. At Revelation 19:1, 3, 4, 6, the divine name is embedded in the expression “Alleluia,” or “Hallelujah.” This expression literally means “Praise Jah, you people!” Jah is a contraction of the name Jehovah.

About the middle of the first century C.E., the disciple James said to the elders in Jerusalem: “Symeon has related thoroughly how God for the first time turned his attention to the nations to take out of them a people for his name.” (Acts 15:14) Does it sound logical to you that James would make such a statement if nobody in the first century knew or used God’s name?

When copies of the Septuagint were discovered that used the divine name rather than Kyʹri·os (Lord), it became evident to the translators that in Jesus’ day copies of the earlier Scriptures in Greek—and of course those in Hebrew—did contain the divine name. Apparently, the God-dishonoring tradition of removing the divine name from Greek manuscripts developed only later."

Excerpts from....
Should the Name Jehovah Appear in the New Testament? — Watchtower ONLINE LIBRARY

A5 The Divine Name in the Christian Greek Scriptures — Watchtower ONLINE LIBRARY

I believe that the divine name of God belongs in the Bible, where it was originally found, and that God has given it to his people, as indicated in Acts 15:14.
What you believe is irrelevant.

Jehovah was never used in the NT. It was not used in the Septuigiant.

It was not used in the Koine


Greek original source documents

Jehovah is not the name of God.

Irrefutable facts

Your denomination substituted it for the original words.

I know for a fact that the name is used with reverence and respect, but that isn`t the issue.

The issue is that your denomination uses the name as one of it`s badges to wear proving you are Gods chosen "organization".

You changed the Bible, then point to the changes you made as Biblical proof that only you honor the name of God, which was never His name in the first place.
 

stvdv

Veteran Member: I Share (not Debate) my POV
It beats me how people come up with the idea that Jesus is God. I think it may be satanic.
That might be easier to understand than you think.

Many people who believe in Jesus also believe that they should evangelize for the good cause (spread Christianity all around the world)

The best PR in my idea is declaring "Jesus is God". That is the best trick to make the Book a best seller
 

Desert Snake

Veteran Member
John 1:2 He was in the beginning with God; 3 all things were made through him, and without him was not anything made that was made.​

The context here is gnostic (as it is in Paul; but not in the synoptics): God is absolutely pure and remote, and accordingly entirely immaterial. It is Jesus, just as in gnosticism it's the demiurge, who creates the material world and then acts as mediator between God and that world.

The likeness to Paul's position is seen in [c] in the next quote you cite.

Only Paul and the author of John think Jesus existed in heaven before coming to earth. By contrast, the author of Mark thought Jesus was an ordinary Jew until God adopted him as his son on the occasion of his baptism, on the model that God had adopted David as his son in Psalm 2:7 (a point made explicit in Acts 13:33). And while Matthew's and Luke's Jesuses were conceived of the Holy Ghost, they didn't exist before that conception.

Bold and letters added by me, of course. You referred to :

Colossians 1: 15 [a] He is the image of the invisible God, the first-born of all creation; 16 [c] for in him all things were created, in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or principalities or authorities--all things were created through him and for him. 17 He is before all things, and in him all things hold together. 18 He is the head of the body, the church; he is the beginning, the first-born from the dead, that in everything he might be pre-eminent. 19 [d] For in him all the fulness of God was pleased to dwell,


Note that Paul clearly distinguishes between the Father as God, and Jesus as Lord eg

1 Corinthians 8:6 yet for us there is one God, the Father, from whom are all things and for whom we exist, and one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom are all things and through whom we exist.
Philippians 2:9 [e] Therefore God has highly exalted him and bestowed on him the name which is above every name, 10 that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, in heaven and on earth and under the earth, 11 and every tongue confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.​
That's why next to the passage you quoted in Colossians, Jesus is [a] the image of God. not God himself; and why Jesus is the first-born of Creation, not the Creator. The context of [c] is gnostic, just as it is in John above. In [d] we have the distinction underlined again: God is pleased to 'dwell' in Jesus. In [e] God exalts Jesus, not himself.


Hebrews 1:8 But of the Son he says, "Thy throne, O God, is for ever and ever, the righteous scepter is the scepter of thy kingdom.​
Paul is quoting the Psalms:

Psalm 45:6 Thy throne, O God, is for ever and ever: the scepter of thy kingdom is a right scepter.​
This is addressed to King David, and 'God' is an honorific which the psalmist bestows on him.


2 Corinthians 6:18 and I will be a father to you, and you shall be my sons and daughters, says the Lord Almighty."​
No, that's not a reference to Jesus ─ it's a reference to God.

Note that nowhere in the NT does Jesus claim to be God. As mentioned, with Paul and John (but not Mark, Matthew or Luke) he claims to have pre-existed with God. Instead, in all of them he expressly denies he's God. I gave you Paul's distinction between Lord and God above; in the gospels, and this is only a small sample, Jesus says:

Mark 12: 29 Jesus answered, “The first is, ‘Hear, O Israel: The Lord our God, the Lord is one;” ... 32 And the scribe said to him, “You are right, Teacher; you have truly said that he is one, and there is no other but he;

Matthew 20:23 “to sit at my right hand and at my left is not mine to grant, but it is for those for whom it has been prepared by my Father.”

Matthew 24:36 “But of that day and hour no one knows, not even the angels of heaven, nor the Son, but the Father only.”

Luke 18:19 “Why do you call me good? No one is good but God alone.”

John 8:42 “I proceeded and came forth from God; I came not of my own accord, but he sent me.”

John 17:3 “And this is eternal life, that they know thee the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom thou hast sent.”

John 20:17 “I am ascending to my Father and your Father, to my God and your God.”​
The desire of Jesus' followers to elevate him to full God status arose by the second century, and various ways of doing this were proposed and rejected. One was simply to declare that he was a god, but that was politically unacceptable since a charge of polytheism would mean they were like the pagans. Another was to declare that Jesus and the Ghost were simply two manifestations of the one God (as in the Tanakh the ruach is a manifestation of God) but that wasn't acceptable either. God is not a firm with three partners. God is not a corporation with a board of three. Not till the fourth century CE was the Trinity doctrine as presently formed invented. It says there is one God who is three persons who are separate and distinct identities and each of them is 100% of God. Now obviously 100%+100%+100%=300%=3 gods. The Trinity doctrine nonetheless says this isn't so. Nor is God made up of fractions so the doctrine also denies that God is ⅓ Father + ⅓ Jesus + ⅓ Ghost. Instead, the churches declare that the Trinity doctrine is 'a mystery in the strict sense' in that 'it cannot be known by unaided human reason apart from revelation nor cogently demonstrated by reason once it has been revealed'. A moment's thought will tell you that another word for something with those qualities is 'a nonsense'.
Greetings

The incarnation, the human incarnation, is different from Jesus in Spirit form.

So, different ideas about how that works, are believed, and that varies slightly, in one belief, asiatic church presented, the God nature is separate from the human nature, and they both are present with Jesus.

Now, whether Matthew believes that the Lordship happened at baptism, is another argument. Matthew 1:22-24 does not imply that. That is another argument though, so

Yes the 'g-d' word, in the Greek, is delineated from Jesus, however that does not mean, what it seems like, at first reading. Because Jesus, being the Lord, though incarnated, is God, just by being Lord. So, you religiously, cannot be saying that although Jesus is the Lord, that that doesn't mean God...

So, what is derived,
Jehovah=God
Jesus=God

Spirit=God

Which might seem like distinct persons, however it isn't.

The only way, for Jesus not to be god, is if you derive a 'different god'. That idea seems great , however really doesn't work, because you have prayers to Jesus, in both Spirit and manifest form, and Jesus as Lord

'Jesus as Lord' means that Jesus had better be God, if you believe the Tetragrammaton, to be God.

In other words, the manifest form Jesus, the 'Lord with us', really is "praying to Himself", and the 'Lords Prayer', is to Jesus.
That's the idea...


If you want the alternative belief, the church can't provide that, (contradicts their religious presentation in both who 'god' is, and their derivations of "separate persons"), so saying the church yada yada doesn't mean much.
 
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URAVIP2ME

Veteran Member
John 1:3
Colossians 1:16
These verses are clearly saying that Jesus, the Lord, is the God whom all things were created, so forth. It's quite obvious.
Hebrews 1:8.
So, in a direct reading, not [whatever non direct argument your church makes, if you as a christian don't believe this, then what is your argument?
If there is only one Lord of Christians, believers, then
2 Corinthians 6:18
Has to mean Jesus.
'Lord Almighty'

If you don't believe this, how do you reconcile the direct words.
We're talking about direct words, here, however if you have some other argument, that's fine.
Agape! Shalom...

I find there are two (2) LORD/Lords mentioned at Psalms 110
In the KJV Bible, LORD in all Upper-Case letters stands for LORD God (Tetragrammaton)
The Lord, in some lower-case letters stands for Lord Jesus. ( No Tetragrammaton applied )
So, the Lord God of 2 Cor. 6:18; 8:1 is the God of the Bible, or the Upper-Case LORD God of Psalms 110.
God's name (LORD, YHWH) identifies or separates the one from the other -> John 17:6; John 17:26.

Thus, Lord Jesus is the agent God used at John 1:3; 1 Corinthians 8:6.
Please notice 1 Corinthians 8:6 because there is one God ' and ' another person: one Lord Christ Jesus.
I find at Hebrews 1:8-9 Jesus is speaking, and as Son says: Your throne, O God....
The resurrected ascended-to-heaven Jesus still thinks his God has His own throne as per Revelation 3:21.
This is also because Jesus still believes he has a God over him according to Revelation 3:12.
 

shmogie

Well-Known Member
Mathew, Mark, Luke and John, I'm easy with, especially Mathew. It's been a long road. As a youngster around 15 or 16 (1962?) a Pot Washer in a Hospital Kitchen I worked in gave me a Red Bible. In it, there was a passage that said,"The Black Man will be satan's henchman". Later in life, I have tried to figure out if it was a JW Bible, or a Mormon one? Both have had their dark periods.

Later, in 1974, in a period of Spiritual Quickening, I read the whole Bible (KJV) through like a book in about 2 weeks. I wasn't to the "Prayer and Meditation" place yet. One or two books in the OT were such a trudge with their genealogy that I was not diligent with them. Still, I read the whole OT and decided that God was kind and patient. It seemed to me that it was a profound act of mercy that he didn't just wipe man out entirely and come out with revision 2 of man?

I was easy with the four Gospels, feeling that I knew and would follow Jesus. From Acts on to Revelation was a disappointment. I was never easy with the Murder of Ananias and Sapphira. By the time I finished the NT, I felt that who ever wrote it was not a likeable person, and I would never want to know them. The book of Revelation was hard to understand, and parts of it are still confusing.

It is disappointing to me that there are so many Denominations in Christianity. I left it in 2003. Islam is just as messed up. The Jews are so irascible, by in large that I don't get them. Anyone who would refuse to push an Elevator button on Shabat...It's not something I can comprehend.

Hence the reason for being an Abrahamic Religionist. I can honestly worship God, Allah SWT, G_d in whatever form he takes, even knowing that he is largely unknowable. As to Jesus, Isa PBUH I don't have to understand it all. I don't believe that any of us do. It is confusing to me why people don't use the research resources available to them in doing religious investigation. So many seem so dependent upon their Pastor or Imam in an unhealthy way...

These days, I am completely alone, and understand that it could be God's will. Jesus speaks about distractions. I'm still just as bent (C.S. Lewis) as everyone else, but there is the freedom to try to do better, with no one to blame for my failings except the one in the Mirror.
You are correct, we are all bent.

However, God wants to save us from our sin, not in our sin.

Doing better is wonderful ! However, you cannot be In harmony with God unless you are perfectly sinless, which you cannot be this side of the grave.

You know there is only one way to reconcile yourself with God, you must enter His presence through the door which allows Him to be perfectly just, and perfectly merciful.

Passing through this door, Jesus Christ, allows you to be perfectly sinless in Gods eyes. Totally acceptable.

You may study God eclectically, some of this, some of that. You may love God totally.

Nevertheless, you are ignoring the only way that God has provided for you to come to him.

You do this at your own peril. God yearns for you to enter through that door.

Please, do not disappoint him.
 

URAVIP2ME

Veteran Member
John 1:2 He was in the beginning with God; 3 all things were made through him, and without him was not anything made that was made.
Colossians 1: 15 [a] He is the image of the invisible God, the first-born of all creation; 16 [c] for in him all things were created, in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or principalities or authorities--all things were created through him and for him. 17 He is before all things, and in him all things hold together. 18 He is the head of the body, the church; he is the beginning, the first-born from the dead, that in everything he might be pre-eminent. 19 [d] For in him all the fulness of God was pleased to dwell,
2 Corinthians 6:18 and I will be a father to you, and you shall be my sons and daughters, says the Lord Almighty."
Mark 12: 29 Jesus answered, “The first is, ‘Hear, O Israel: The Lord our God, the Lord is one;” ... 32 And the scribe said to him, “You are right, Teacher; you have truly said that he is one, and there is no other but he;
Matthew 20:23 “to sit at my right hand and at my left is not mine to grant, but it is for those for whom it has been prepared by my Father.”
Matthew 24:36 “But of that day and hour no one knows, not even the angels of heaven, nor the Son, but the Father only.”
Luke 18:19 “Why do you call me good? No one is good but God alone.”
John 8:42 “I proceeded and came forth from God; I came not of my own accord, but he sent me.”
John 17:3 “And this is eternal life, that they know thee the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom thou hast sent.”
John 20:17 “I am ascending to my Father and your Father, to my God and your God.”.........​

I like that you brought out Jesus was ' in the beginning with God '... ( 'in' and Not before the beginning )
Because only God was ' before ' the beginning - Psalms 90:2
So, pre-human Jesus was Not 'before' the beginning as his God was 'before' the beginning.
 
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URAVIP2ME

Veteran Member
The name Jehovah is a fictitious name of the catholic church, in the 14th or 15th century catholic theologians mixed the title adOnAi with YHWH and from this came "Jehovah".
The name Jehovah is not only wrong but also blasphemy, because Jehovah means disaster. Strong's Hebrew: 1943. הֹוָה (hovah) -- a ruin, disaster
Yad(Y)-Hey(AH)-UaU(U)-Hey(AH) are the 4 letters of the name.
If you connect all the letters now, then the name Yahuah comes out. That's the true name of the father. btw. Yahuah means Behold (a) Hand, Behold (a) Nail
I see you seem to have done a lot of research, and years ago I did speak with a Jewish professor.
This is what he believed: God's name is more likely a three (3) syllable name than two syllables.
Instead of Yahuah ( Yahuwa or Yehuah ) he was thinking more along the lines of Yeho-wah.
That Catholic Monk used the Latinized Tetragrammaton form into the English language as Jehovah.
Today we do Not use the Greek name of Iesous' for Jesus, or Jesus in the Hebrew as Yehoshua but use English.

adOnAi (Adho-nai') simply means Sovereign Lord, and Elohim' as the title God.
 

Desert Snake

Veteran Member
I find there are two (2) LORD/Lords mentioned at Psalms 110
In the KJV Bible, LORD in all Upper-Case letters stands for LORD God (Tetragrammaton)
The Lord, in some lower-case letters stands for Lord Jesus. ( No Tetragrammaton applied )
So, the Lord God of 2 Cor. 6:18; 8:1 is the God of the Bible, or the Upper-Case LORD God of Psalms 110.
God's name (LORD, YHWH) identifies or separates the one from the other -> John 17:6; John 17:26.

The verses
'Hear O Israel, the Lord our God is one Lord',

In both Deuteronomy, and said by Jesus in the New Testament, book of Mark, are telling you that you can't create that obscurity, by basically just 'guessing', what you are doing, on the references to the Lord.

The New Testament many times, says 'one Lord' of the believers, so you would have to say that Jesus isn't pre'existant, so forth.

You can't present your argument in the format that Jesus [in Spirit form, is both the Lord, and not the Lord, which is what you are doing.
 

URAVIP2ME

Veteran Member
The verses
'Hear O Israel, the Lord our God is one Lord',
In both Deuteronomy, and said by Jesus in the New Testament, book of Mark, are telling you that you can't create that obscurity, by basically just 'guessing', what you are doing, on the references to the Lord.
The New Testament many times, says 'one Lord' of the believers, so you would have to say that Jesus isn't pre'existant, so forth.
You can't present your argument in the format that Jesus [in Spirit form, is both the Lord, and not the Lord, which is what you are doing.

Lord and God are simply titles.
At Psalms 110 there are two (2) LORD/ Lord's mentioned (KJV) (both are Lords)
The LORD in all Upper-Case letters stands for the LORD God ( Tetragrammton )
The Lord in some lower-case letters stands for Lord Jesus. (No Tetragrammaton used )
Jesus was God's pre-human heavenly creation before God sent pre-human Jesus to Earth - Revelation 3:14 B.
 

Desert Snake

Veteran Member
Lord and God are simply titles.
At Psalms 110 there are two (2) LORD/ Lord's mentioned (KJV) (both are Lords)
The LORD in all Upper-Case letters stands for the LORD God ( Tetragrammton )
The Lord in some lower-case letters stands for Lord Jesus. (No Tetragrammaton used )
Jesus was God's pre-human heavenly creation before God sent pre-human Jesus to Earth - Revelation 3:14 B.
Matthew 22:37-46
Refers to David calling Jesus Lord, yet the opposers believed that to be blasphemy.

Why? Why would the opposers believe that to be blasphemy, if it just means 'sir', there, in that context?

Your argument also has direct verse problems, however there is just one example of the way your argument doesn't match scripture.
 

Desert Snake

Veteran Member
Lord and God are simply titles.

First of all, that means every time you say such and such is g-d, or what not, it makes your argument meaningless.

With that said, no reason to have a meaningless discussion, derived from a peculiar interpretation, that contradicts both names and titles.
 

shmogie

Well-Known Member
Then, please tell us what name Jesus was referring to at John 17:6 and John 17:26 __________
It wasn´t Jehovah. The tetragrammaton was not pronounced Jehovah, if it was ever pronounced.

There certainly is no J sounding consonant in the four consonants used.

Jehovah is a totally man made term.
 

Desert Snake

Veteran Member
If David only worships Yahweh, and the Psalms 110:1 is about David,

Then Matthew 22:37-46
Means that David is calling Jesus the Tetragrammaton.
 

Desert Snake

Veteran Member
Jesus pre'exists incarnation, as Jesus, or, David is calling Yahweh Lord, and that's why David calls Jesus Lord.

Psalms 110:1
Matthew 22:37-46

You need to pick which interpretation it is, of those two interpretations, [of Psalms 110:1

Because those are the only options.
 

1213

Well-Known Member
John 1:3

Colossians 1:16

These verses are clearly saying that Jesus, the Lord, is the God whom all things were created, ......

For by him were all things created, in the heavens and on the earth, things visible and things invisible, whether thrones or dominions or principalities or powers; all things have been created through him, and for him.
Colossians 1:16

Things were created through him. that implicates someone created and used Jesus as “tool” in the process.
 
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