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The Gospel of John Claims that Jesus is God

SugarOcean

¡pɹᴉǝM ʎɐʇS
In the book of John it's pretty obvious that the author is saying that Jesus is God.

John 1:1 makes that much easily clear. The Word was with God and the Word was God.

Jewish authorship:
The arguments from Arianism that this is speaking of "a" god are flawed for a few reasons. First of all the author is a Jew and that's not a Jewish idea. The author is obviously familiar with the Torah and it's commandments. Including "Hear oh Israel Jehovah our Elohim is one Jehovah." And "Thou shalt have no other elohim before me."

So the concept of two gods is against Judaism and it's silly to think that the Jewish author of John would be promoting the worship of two gods.

Influence from Greek philosophy?
Jewish authorship also casts serious doubt on such ideas as that the author is speaking of the so called "divine logos" of Greek philosophy. If the author is a Jew then what does he have to do with Greek philosophy? So if the author's views on the "Word" can be explained without resorting to Greek philosophy and instead by resorting to Jewish literal; especially the Torah and Tanakh. Then that is what should be done rather than assuming the author is influenced by foreign(gentile, pagan) philosophy.

So in understanding the "Word" that was made flesh we should look to 1st century Jewish ideas of the Word of God.

Context:
Secondly, if the author is really promoting the worship of two gods then we should be able to actually see that in the context. Meaning why would the author just stop with a statement like "The Word was with God and the Word was "a" God"? Especially since this can more easily be translated as "The Word was with God and the Word was God".

Therefore Arianists need more proof to show John actually meant to be speaking of two gods rather than one.

This proof they do not have. In fact when we compare John 10:30 with John 1:1 we see an obvious link. Meaning that the author here is showing us exactly how he views the relationship of the Word with God. Jesus is essentially the Word made flesh, but somehow He is "one" with the Father.

In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. (John 1:1)
And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth. (John 1:14)
I and my Father are one. (John 10:30)

The truth:
The Jewish concept of "the truth" is that God(Jehovah) is the God of truth. Essentially the truth is God. So when Jesus claims to be " the way, the truth, and the life" It's a claim of divinity. And we further see this in the book of John when Jesus speaks of the "Spirit of truth" that "proceeds from the Father" who they(his disciples) know because He "dwells with them". See: John 14:17, John 15:26, John 16:13. So Jesus is basically claiming here that He is the Spirit of truth that proceeds from the Father (Obviously indwelling human flesh). According to Jesus (in the book of John) He (the Spirit of truth/Jesus) is with them but will be in them. So Jesus says "I will not leave you comfortless: I will come to you." (John 14:18)

This is further collaborated in other Jewish writings such as 1st Esdras chapter 4:35-41. God is the "God of truth" and "Great is the Truth and mighty above all things".

The Father revealed in the flesh:
The author of John also makes it kind of obvious that Jesus is claiming to be God revealed in the flesh when Jesus says "Have I been so long time with you, and yet hast thou not known me, Philip? he that hath seen me hath seen the Father; and how sayest thou then, Show us the Father?" This was in reply to Philip asking Jesus to "show us the Father". (John 14:8-9)

So Jesus the Son of God is "The Word of God" and "the Truth". This is how the Son declares the God that no one can see. (John 1:18) He declares Him just by being. Because He is the "Truth" and the "Word made flesh". In other words, Jesus is all of God that can be seen.

Looking at other writings attributed to John we find that in 1 John 3:1-6 that John makes no distinction between the Father and the Son. But speaks of them as One.

1 John 3 King James Version (KJV)
3 Behold, what manner of love the Father hath bestowed upon us, that we should be called the sons of God: therefore the world knoweth us not, because it knew him not.
2 Beloved, now are we the sons of God, and it doth not yet appear what we shall be: but we know that, when he shall appear, we shall be like him; for we shall see him as he is.
3 And every man that hath this hope in him purifieth himself, even as he is pure.
4 Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law: for sin is the transgression of the law.
5 And ye know that he was manifested to take away our sins; and in him is no sin.
6 Whosoever abideth in him sinneth not: whosoever sinneth hath not seen him, neither known him.

Jesus was God. There are denominations that teach falsity in this regard. Jehovah Witness , Anabaptists, are but two.

Before Jesus came to be in this world, we are told Jesus was God. And you shall name the child Immanuel, which means, God with us.

Teachings that say Jesus was just a man are unholy. And are blasphemy of the holy spirit. Sad.
 

SugarOcean

¡pɹᴉǝM ʎɐʇS
I believe saying it is a god is idolatry and blasphemy. Good luck with that.
True. It is blasphemy. However, it is the blasphemy taught in the New World Translation Jehovah Witness book.
Sadly, JW is a cult. This then is an abomination in the abstract of that fact.

They're ignorant of scripture for a very bad reason.
“Thus the Bible is an organizational book and belongs to the Christian congregation as an organization, not to individuals, regardless of how sincerely they may believe that they can interpret the Bible. For this reason the Bible cannot be properly understood without Jehovah’s visible organization in mind.”—The Watchtower, October 1, 1967, p. 587
 
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74x12

Well-Known Member
Jesus was God. There are denominations that teach falsity in this regard. Jehovah Witness , Anabaptists, are but two.

Before Jesus came to be in this world, we are told Jesus was God. And you shall name the child Immanuel, which means, God with us.

Teachings that say Jesus was just a man are unholy. And are blasphemy of the holy spirit. Sad.
While I do agree that Jesus is God. I don't agree that it's a blasphemy of the holy Spirit to say He was just a man. People really believe that and mean no harm by saying it. If you know He is God though and you say He was just a man then you're denying Him. But it's still not blasphemy of the holy Spirit.
 

SugarOcean

¡pɹᴉǝM ʎɐʇS
While I do agree that Jesus is God. I don't agree that it's a blasphemy of the holy Spirit to say He was just a man. People really believe that and mean no harm by saying it. If you know He is God though and you say He was just a man then you're denying Him. But it's still not blasphemy of the holy Spirit.
I would disagree because the scriptures those who argue Jesus was just a man don't actually exist to say that. While , to believe Jesus was just a man, having read scripture, means one has ignored the scripture that inform Jesus was God. And that is blasphemy to then insist Jesus was just a man.
 

Clear

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
Hi @tigger2

I certainly agree that John 1:1c can be correctly translated as "And the Word was a God." I also agree with the sentiment that much of the motivation that individuals have to resist this translation has to do with doctrinal bias and has nothing to do with Koine Greek Grammar. I feel that most grammatical justifications and somewhat arbitrary "rules" of greek were almost never really the core issue, even with the experts on Greek. The issue was almost always that the translation disagreed with their theology. The issue of correct translation was almost ALWAYS going to be one of early Christian context and what the sentence would have meant to the author of this ancient text.



Good luck and good journey Tigger2

Clear
σιφυνεακω

I believe saying it is a god is idolatry and blasphemy. Good luck with that.

I do not think that the author of John intended to convey idolatry and blasphemy (though to some of the Jews of that day is may have seemed that way) but instead was trying to convey early Christian theology according to his personal belief. You might have written the phrase differently because of your personal beliefs.

This is an example of the point I made. YOUR personal belief (personal context) affects your translations and thus it is with creators of the various bibles. They also translate according to their personal context. IF one uses strict rules of grammar as their context (an agnostic or computer or ancient christian, etc.) then the translation will be different.

This has been part of the difficulty for Christianity in the eyes of non-Christians. It makes a claim that a man (Jesus) is also somehow, a God. Some of the major criticisms of Christianity has been because it makes this claim which seems, to some other religions, as a form of blasphemy. For example, while Islam is perfectly fine with the claim that the man Jesus was a Prophet, they feel that to say a man (Jesus, or any other man...) is a God, then this is, to them, blasphemy.

If Jesus is divine, then it is not particularly blasphemous to say he was "a God". While I think that the context is that he is the God of the Old Testament, your model might be different. I am O.K. with these sorts of discrepancies.

Good luck coming up with your own models regarding the nature of Jesus.


Clear.
ακτζειδρω
 
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Oeste

Well-Known Member
"....there are many gods and many lords,...." (1 Corinthians 8:5-6)
The Apostle Paul said this. He wasn't advocating worshipping them, he was simply recognizing their existence. (Same w/ John.)

What does the rest of this passage (1 Corinthians 8:6) say?

But to us(the church) there is but one God the Father.

Correct. For Christians there is one God. For the Watchtower there are quite a few. They are henotheistic in the same manner as the Romans and Greeks, worshiping one deity but believing in many gods.The Watchtower tells their followers that the pagans "worshiped many gods" but that's only true if you view pagans deities as a group. The individual pagan acknowledged or respected other gods but generally worshiped one specific deity.

I put together a diagram which I believe illustrates the Watchtower pantheon. I'm willing to make corrections if they can source jw.org or one of their publications:

Watchtower Pantheon.png

My understanding of the Watchtower is that there are two "major" Gods, Jehovah who is Almighty and Michael the Arch Angel who is a Mighty God. From their perspective this is okay because they only worship one. I'm not sure, but I think they believe Michael "ceases to exist" when Jesus is born, leaving Jehovah as the only major God. It would be interesting to hear what the WT's latest thought is about that.

In any event, Michael the Mighty God is no more and he becomes Jesus who is now "...a god" like Satan, Ceasar, the Judges of Israel and other "mighty men".

It's a radical departure from traditional Christianity which considers all gods and Gods bogus but one.
 

Oeste

Well-Known Member
I don't know the Greek well enough to debate grammatical rules like this. How well do you know the Greek? I think these "rules" are really up for serious debate themselves. So I am not going to just hand you a win here just because I don't know Greek grammar.

Well in truth, at least 80% of the WT’s translation committee couldn’t read Greek either, and we’re still debating their “rule”. :)
 

Hockeycowboy

Witness for Jehovah
Premium Member
Come on, @Oeste , you know who we worship: Jehovah alone (Psalms 83:18). It is who Jesus worshipped (John 4:23-24), even after his resurrection (John 20:17). And Jesus, as His Son, perfectly mirrors Him, as many sons do their fathers. 2 Corinthians 4:4; Hebrews 1:3.

And Michael is mentioned in Revelation 12.
 

Oeste

Well-Known Member
Come on, @Oeste , you know who we worship: Jehovah alone (Psalms 83:18). It is who Jesus worshipped (John 4:23-24), even after his resurrection (John 20:17). And Jesus, as His Son, perfectly mirrors Him, as many sons do their fathers. 2 Corinthians 4:4; Hebrews 1:3.

And Michael is mentioned in Revelation 12.

Correct, you worship but one God, but how is that different from henotheism or monolatry? As soon as you acknowledge the existence of other gods you are by definition a polytheist.

Also, I haven't been able to find out from a JW whether Michael ceases to exist at the moment of Jesus' birth.
 

Hockeycowboy

Witness for Jehovah
Premium Member
As soon as you acknowledge the existence of other gods you are by definition a polytheist.

So the Apostle Paul was, too, then? He said "there are many gods and many lords", did he not? 1 Corinthians 8:5

What other people make into gods, we can't help but acknowledge that. Paul did, also.
 

Oeste

Well-Known Member
So the Apostle Paul was, too, then? He said "there are many gods and many lords", did he not? 1 Corinthians 8:5

Yes, e Satan is a god for many people. However please read the next verse:

yet for us there is one God, the Father, from whom are all things and for whom we exist, and one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom are all things and through whom we exist.​

So for the pagans, there are many gods, but for Christians there is but one.

What other people make into gods, we can't help but acknowledge that. Paul did, also.

We can acknowledge others, like the Greeks and Romans had gods. It would be silly not to. But Christians do not acknowledge those gods because for us there is but one God.

Look, when you read a book about Greek mythology, does anyone claim the gods in the book are "fake news"? Of course not. Everyone acknowledges THE GREEKS had their gods.

But as Christians we do not acknowledge Greek, Roman, Egyptian, or any other God or gods but one.
 

tigger2

Active Member
Correct. For Christians there is one God. For the Watchtower there are quite a few. They are henotheistic in the same manner as the Romans and Greeks, worshiping one deity but believing in many gods.The Watchtower tells their followers that the pagans "worshiped many gods" but that's only true if you view pagans deities as a group. The individual pagan acknowledged or respected other gods but generally worshiped one specific deity.

I put together a diagram which I believe illustrates the Watchtower pantheon. I'm willing to make corrections if they can source jw.org or one of their publications:


My understanding of the Watchtower is that there are two "major" Gods, Jehovah who is Almighty and Michael the Arch Angel who is a Mighty God. From their perspective this is okay because they only worship one. I'm not sure, but I think they believe Michael "ceases to exist" when Jesus is born, leaving Jehovah as the only major God. It would be interesting to hear what the WT's latest thought is about that.

In any event, Michael the Mighty God is no more and he becomes Jesus who is now "...a god" like Satan, Ceasar, the Judges of Israel and other "mighty men".

It's a radical departure from traditional Christianity which considers all gods and Gods bogus but one.

...........
The New International Dictionary of New Testament Theology, Zondervan, 1986, tells us:

“The reason why judges are called ‘gods’ in Ps. 82 is that they have the office of administering God’s judgment as ‘sons of the Most High.’ In context of the Ps. the men in question have failed to do this.... On the other hand, Jesus fulfilled the role of a true judge as agod’ and ‘son of the Most High’.” - Vol. 3, p. 187.

Some of these (mostly) trinitarian sources which admit that the Bible actually describes men who represent God (judges, Israelite kings, etc.) and God’s angels as gods include:

1. Young’s Analytical Concordance of the Bible, “Hints and Helps...,” Eerdmans, 1978 reprint;

2. Strong’s Exhaustive Concordance of the Bible, #430, Hebrew and Chaldee Dict., Abingdon, 1974;

3. New Bible Dictionary, p. 1133 (angels, judges), Tyndale House Publ., 1984;

4. Today’s Dictionary of the Bible, p. 208 (angels, judges), Bethany House Publ., 1982;

5. Hastings’ A Dictionary of the Bible, p. 217, Vol. 2;

6. The New Brown-Driver-Briggs-Gesenius Hebrew-English Lexicon, p. 43, Hendrickson publ.,1979;

7. Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament, #2316 (4.), Thayer, Baker Book House, 1984 printing;

8. The International Standard Bible Encyclopaedia, p. 132, Vol. 1; and p. 1265, Vol. 2, Eerdmans, 1984;

9. The NIV Study Bible, footnotes for Ps. 45:6; Ps. 82:1, 6; and Jn 10:34; Zondervan, 1985;

10. New American Bible, St. Joseph ed., footnote for Ps. 45:7; 82:1; Jn 10:34; 1970 ed.;

11. A. T. Robertson, Word Pictures, Vol. 5, pp. 188-189;

12. William G. T. Shedd, Dogmatic Theology, Vol. 1, pp. 317, 324, Nelson Publ., 1980 printing;

13. Murray J. Harris, Jesus As God, p. 202, (angels, judges, kings) Baker Book House, 1992;

14. William Barclay, The Gospel of John, V. 2, Daily Study Bible Series, pp. 77, 78, Westminster Press, 1975;

15. The New John Gill Exposition of the Entire Bible (John 10:34 and Ps. 82:6);

16. The Fourfold Gospel (Note for John 10:35);

17. Commentary Critical and Explanatory on the Whole Bible - Jamieson, Fausset, Brown (John 10:34-36);

18. Matthew Henry Complete Commentary on the Whole Bible (Ps. 82:6-8 and John 10:35);

19. John Wesley's Explanatory Notes on the Whole Bible (Ps. 82:1).

20. Theological Dictionary of the New Testament ('Little Kittel'), - p. 328, Eerdmans Publishing Co., 1985.

21. The Expositor’s Greek Testament, pp. 794-795, Vol. 1, Eerdmans Publishing Co.

22. The Amplified Bible, Ps. 82:1, 6 and John 10:34, 35, Zondervan Publ., 1965.

23. Barnes' Notes on the New Testament, John 10:34, 35.

24. B. W. Johnson's People's New Testament, John 10:34-36.

25. The New International Dictionary of New Testament Theology, Zondervan, 1986, Vol. 3, p. 187.

26. Fairbairn’s Imperial Standard Bible Encyclopedia, p. 24, vol. III, Zondervan, 1957 reprint.

27. Theological Dictionary, Rahner and Vorgrimler, p. 20, Herder and Herder, 1965.

28. Pastor Jon Courson, The Gospel According to John.

29. Vincent’s New Testament Word Studies, John 10:36.

30. C. J. Ellicott, John 10:34, Ellicott's Commentary for English Readers.

(Also John 10:34, 35 - CEV; TEV; GodsWord; The Message; NLT; NIRV)

And the earliest Christians like the highly respected scholar Origen and others - - including Tertullian; Justin Martyr; Hippolytus; Clement of Alexandria; Theophilus; the writer of “The Epistle to Diognetus”; and even super-trinitarians St. Athanasius and St. Augustine - - also had this understanding for “a god.”

St. Augustine, for example, showed this understanding of the meaning of “god.” Writing around 410 A.D. and speaking of godly men, he said:

“For created gods are gods not by virtue of what is in themselves, but by a participation of the True God.” - The City of God, Book XIV, Chapter 13,

Also see Book IX, Ch. 23, where Augustine says that godly men and angels are gods!

If all those trinitarian scholars and all those early Christian writers (including trinitarians) can admit that the Bible says men and angels appointed by God are called 'gods,' I see no big problem for JWs to say the same!!
 
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Hockeycowboy

Witness for Jehovah
Premium Member
Yes, e Satan is a god for many people. However please read the next verse:

yet for us there is one God, the Father, from whom are all things and for whom we exist, and one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom are all things and through whom we exist.​

So for the pagans, there are many gods, but for Christians there is but one.



We can acknowledge others, like the Greeks and Romans had gods. It would be silly not to. But Christians do not acknowledge those gods because for us there is but one God.

Look, when you read a book about Greek mythology, does anyone claim the gods in the book are "fake news"? Of course not. Everyone acknowledges THE GREEKS had their gods.

But as Christians we do not acknowledge Greek, Roman, Egyptian, or any other God or gods but one.
Yes. "One God, the Father". And Jesus is not the Father. Rather, he is the "one Lord."
 

Oeste

Well-Known Member
“The reason why judges are called ‘gods’ in Ps. 82 is that they have the office of administering God’s judgment as ‘sons of the Most High.’ In context of the Ps. the men in question have failed to do this....

Of course they failed to do it...that's why they were called gods! The prophets of Baal failed too, after Elijah challenged them. Had the judges succeeded they would have been called rulers, judges, kings. Had the prophets of Baal succeeded, we would call Baal rather than Yahweh "God".

Some of these (mostly) trinitarian sources which admit that the Bible actually describes men who represent God (judges, Israelite kings, etc.) and God’s angels as gods include:

It's not a good thing when scripture refers to someone or something as "a god". Even Moses became "as god" and not "a god" to Pharaoh.

“For created gods are gods not by virtue of what is in themselves, but by a participation of the True God.

Lol, that was too funny tigger2! Here's the actual quote:

“...The Devil would not have begun by an open and obvious sin to tempt man into doing something which God had forbidden, had not man already begun to seek satisfaction in himself and, consequently, to take pleasure in the words: 'You shall be as Gods.' The promise of these words, however, would much more truly have come to pass if, by obedience, Adam and Eve had kept close to the ultimate and true Source of their being and had not, by pride imagined that they were themselves the source of their being. For, created gods are gods not in virtue of their own being but by a participation in the being of the true God. For, whoever seeks to be more than he is becomes less, and while he aspires to be self-sufficing he retires from Him who is truly sufficient for him.”
The quote was deceptive as it leaves out a few key words.
 

Oeste

Well-Known Member
Yes. "One God, the Father". And Jesus is not the Father. Rather, he is the "one Lord."

We call God Lord, and we call the Lord our God.

Now one of the scribes had come up and heard their debate. Noticing how well Jesus had answered them, he asked Him, “Which commandment is the most important of all?” Jesus replied "This is the most important: 'Hear O Israel, the Lord our God is One Lord," (Mark 12:29)
Notice, it's One Lord, not two Lords.
 

tigger2

Active Member
Of course they failed to do it...that's why they were called gods! The prophets of Baal failed too, after Elijah challenged them. Had the judges succeeded they would have been called rulers, judges, kings. Had the prophets of Baal succeeded, we would call Baal rather than Yahweh "God".



It's not a good thing when scripture refers to someone or something as "a god". Even Moses became "as god" and not "a god" to Pharaoh.



Lol, that was too funny tigger2! Here's the actual quote:

“...The Devil would not have begun by an open and obvious sin to tempt man into doing something which God had forbidden, had not man already begun to seek satisfaction in himself and, consequently, to take pleasure in the words: 'You shall be as Gods.' The promise of these words, however, would much more truly have come to pass if, by obedience, Adam and Eve had kept close to the ultimate and true Source of their being and had not, by pride imagined that they were themselves the source of their being. For, created gods are gods not in virtue of their own being but by a participation in the being of the true God. For, whoever seeks to be more than he is becomes less, and while he aspires to be self-sufficing he retires from Him who is truly sufficient for him.”
The quote was deceptive as it leaves out a few key words.

Thanks for ignoring 95% of the sources gave you.

"The devil, then, would not have ensnared man in the open and manifest sin of doing what God had forbidden, had man not already begun to live for himself. It was this that made him listen with pleasure to the words, You shall be as gods, Genesis 3:5 which they would much more readily have accomplished by obediently adhering to their supreme and true end than by proudly living to themselves. For created gods are gods not by virtue of what is in themselves, but by a participation of the true God. By craving to be more, man becomes less; and by aspiring to be self-sufficing, he fell away from Him who truly suffices him." - Church Fathers: City of God, Book XIV, Ch. 13. http://www.newadvent.org/fathers/120114.htm

I don't appreciate being called one who is deceptive in his quoting! Nothing changes with the full quote (which differs from yours). The meaning is still the same. Created gods (faithful men) are not so because of themselves, but by the will of the true God. If Adam and Eve had remained faithful they would have received this from God.

Where did you get your translation from?
 
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Hockeycowboy

Witness for Jehovah
Premium Member
We call God Lord, and we call the Lord our God.

Now one of the scribes had come up and heard their debate. Noticing how well Jesus had answered them, he asked Him, “Which commandment is the most important of all?” Jesus replied "This is the most important: 'Hear O Israel, the Lord our God is One Lord," (Mark 12:29)
Notice, it's One Lord, not two Lords.
Then explain Psalms 110:1.

Who 'gave' Jesus all authority in Matthew 18:18, which made him Lord?
 

Oeste

Well-Known Member
Then explain Psalms 110:1.

Who 'gave' Jesus all authority in Matthew 18:18, which made him Lord?

That sounds like a good question @Hockeycowboy!

Sorry I’ve been very busy. I have a LOT of catch up to do on this thread. Besides, look at what @tigger2 posted:

Thanks for ignoring 95% of the sources gave you.

I'm afraid if I devote much time to answering your question now @tigger2 will feel ignored and its unfair to leave him feeling neglected.

However, I’m sure @74x12, @Muffled, or @SugarOcean would be able to answer this question for you, and while it may not be exactly how I would have answered at least you’ll have a response until I’m able to get up to speed.
 

Oeste

Well-Known Member
I, instead, have looked at all the examples of theos in all of John's writings. I have proved that John always used ho theos when he intended the meaning of 'God.'

This was directed @74x12 but I think you're making a supposition about the posters here.

Can you show us where he or any one else on this thread claimed "ho theos" meant otherwise?

Are you ever going to look up all the uses of theos in John's writings? (The other Gospel writers have also used ho theos when they intended 'God.')

Will you show me which of them disprove what I have found?

What exactly were you trying to show or prove? Admittedly I've perused the last few pages of posts rather quickly, but It sounds like you're preaching to the choir.
 

Oeste

Well-Known Member
As Mr. Countess well knows, the use of theos at Jn 1:1c is in the nominative case (the form used for subjects and predicate nouns and which has the surest use of the article) and has no other words to modify or describe it further. This eliminates the many exceptions to article use (or non-use) found in other situations.

The nominative case for theos is θεὸς. This very same word in its other cases is: theou (θεο); theon (θεόν); theo (θεω). Most of these cases, unlike the nominative case (but see the THEON study), use the article irregularly and cannot be relied on to use (or not use) the article in a meaningful way to speakers (and writers) of English! (see DEF study).

THEON study…DEF study??? Given the high aspirations listed in its initial Forward, I agree with Countess and (later) Bowman that the NWT must stand on its own. Nowhere in the appendix or footnotes does it tell us to look to THEON, DEF studies, or Tigger2 for additional clarification, updates or exceptions. Countess correctly addresses what he found in the NWT and the WT specifically discourages anyone from referencing anything or anyone outside their official publications.

In other words, communication flows from God to the uninspired (except when they are inspired) “discreet slave”, who in turn distributes food at the “proper time”, all of which can be found on JW.org and their publications. No other source is welcomed or necessary unless such exception is noted by the WT.

Let’s look at what the Watchtower says on the subject:

Noticeably, there have been a number of individuals who have created Web sites ostensibly to preach the good news. Many of these sites are sponsored by indiscreet brothers. Other sites may be sponsored by apostates who wish to lure unsuspecting ones. (2 John 9-11) Commenting on whether there is a need for our brothers to create such Web sites, Our Kingdom Ministry, November 1997, page 3, stated: “There is no need for any individual to prepare Internet pages about Jehovah’s Witnesses, our activities, or our beliefs. Our official site [www.watchtower.org*] presents accurate information for any who want it.”

*now JW.ORG​

Obviously the WT would never have written or even suggested such a thing if the spiritual food being provided was somehow insufficient:

Jesus said to her, “Everyone who drinks this water will be thirsty again. But whoever drinks the water I give him will never thirst. Indeed, the water I give him will become in him a fount of water springing up to eternal life.” (John 4:13-14)​

As such we must rely on what the WT actually wrote and/or what the NWT actually states for the official position of the WT, so there’s no need to review Theon, DEF or any other study not posted at JW.Org because the WT counsels against it and could lead to a stumbling of those who read it.

If the WT believed there were important exceptions to their newly stated rule then it was simply (a) sloppy scholarship to leave any such exception out or (b) something they specifically did not want to include or (c) something they did not support or believe.

Countess devotes 44 pages (33 per cent or 1/3 of the entire book!) to showing the NWT’s “dishonest” and “hypocritical” use of theos (‘God/god’). 27 pages in the appendix list all uses of the word (whether theos, theou, theon, theo or with prepositions or not) in the left column to show that it has the article with it in the NT text. In the right column, of course, he lists all of the other uses which do not have the article in the NT text. In those columns he shows how the NWT has translated the term. He gleefully points out that a few of the uses of the term that have the article are not translated “God” in the NWT, and a few of them that do not have the article are not translated “a god.” His conclusion that the NWT has dishonestly, hypocritically not followed a rule that he says they made concerning this usage is incredibly dishonest itself.

Of course he’s going to list all uses of theos. I find strange any charge that Countess was simply too thorough or exhaustive with his documentation.

But when we eliminate all the irregular forms and stick to the nominative θεὸς without prepositions (as found at Jn 1:1c itself), we find that in all the writings of John (and the other Gospel writers) the article (, ‘the’) is used with θεὸς whenever he intends the meaning “God”!

You're asking us to share an extremely myopic view of John 1:1. You're looking only at the phrase and ignoring the context. John 1:1 is not without preposition and John 1:1c is not translated alone, by itself, enclosed in a vacuum.

And there are many more such examples in the rest of John’s Gospel! (Of course there are also other instances where most Bible writers are able to agree on the significance of article usage - or non-usage - with “prepositional” constructions, but that agreement is attained only from context and obviously not from the actual use - or non-use - of the article!)

Agreed. Only from context. We can't forget the first two clauses.

But that's boring and we'll probably put anyone reading this to sleep (perhaps with the exception of @Clear). We'll look at a much more broader context tomorrow (again it's nearly 2 am!).
 
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