Christians: Easter and Matthew 12:40 ....3 days and 3 nights or 3 days and 2 nights?

Easter and Matthew 12:40
3 days and 3 nights or 3 days and 2 nights? When should the death and resurrection of Jesus Christ be recognized?

This might be helpful.....
What Day of the Week Was Christ Crucified?

Tranquil Servant said:

Easter and Matthew 12:40
3 days and 3 nights or 3 days and 2 nights? When should the death and resurrection of Jesus Christ be recognized?

This might be helpful.....
What Day of the Week Was Christ Crucified?

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I go with Friday

Similar to the book of Esther, once Esther's gals fasted and was described as 'on the 3rd day' and once 'after 3 days' Esther went to the King with her request

Jesus also 'on the 3rd day' and 'after 3 days' are both allowed in the language usage of the day.

Part of a day could be referred to as a day and a night and that resolves the issue

“Which day of the week..”?
It changes.
The Jews followed a lunar Calendar. He was killed on their Passover (to fulfill the prophetic type), which is on Nisan 14. it always begins at sundown on the night of the 1st full moon after the Spring Equinox.

whirlingmerc,
re: "Part of a day could be referred to as a day and a night and that resolves the issue"

Do you have any examples where a daytime or a night time was said to be involved with an event when no part of a daytime or no part of a night time could have occurred?

rstrats said:

whirlingmerc,
re: "Part of a day could be referred to as a day and a night and that resolves the issue"

Do you have any examples where a daytime or a night time was said to be involved with an event when no part of a daytime or no part of a night time could have occurred?

Click to expand...

In several cases the sam duration was referred to as "3 days and 3 nights" as well as"on the 3rd day" concerning Esther fasting then going into the King to make a request and Jesus being buried. It seems to me that suggests 3 days and 3 nights can refer to part of a day

Some Messianic fellowships will say the following
this is taken from WMM ( word of Messiah )

quote

In traditional Jewish thought, a part of the day is equal to the whole. Note these portions of Talmud that speak on the issue:

• -Moed Katan 9b: “Abba Saul maintains the view that any part of the day may be deemed as an entire day… the halachah follows the opinion of Abba Saul and the Sages concur with Abba Saul.”
• -Nazir 5b: “He considers part of a day equivalent to a whole day.”
• -Nidah 33a: “seeing that we have an established rule that part of a day is regarded as the whole of it.”

unquote

whirlingmere,

I don't see where your post #5 shows examples where a daytime or a night time was said to be involved with an event when no part of a daytime or no part of a night time could have occurred.

rstrats said:

whirlingmere,

I don't see where your post #5 shows examples where a daytime or a night time was said to be involved with an event when no part of a daytime or no part of a night time could have occurred.

Click to expand...

There are many examples were a claimed after N days and on the Nth day mean the same thing. It's not a math issue, it's a language usage issue. Language usage can be approximate and may not be meant in a wooden literal sense.

(from Christian think tank )

Gen 42.16: "And he put them all in custody for three days. 18 On the third day, Joseph said to them, "Do this and you will live, for I fear God" and they are released ON that day (from the context of verses 25-26). In this case the 'for three days' meant only 'into the third day'

1 Kings 20.29: "For seven days they camped opposite each other, and on the seventh day the battle was joined. " In this case we have 'for seven days' meant only 'into the seventh day'.

2 Chr 10.5: "And he said to them, 'Return to me again in three days" (NAS) with verse 12: "So Jeroboam and all the people came to Rehoboam on the third dayas the king had directed, saying, 'Return to me on the third day." In this case 'in three days' is equivalent to 'on the third day'.

Esther 4.16: "Go, gather together all the Jews who are in Susa, and fast for me. Do not eat or drink for three days, night or day. I and my maids will fast as you do. When this is done, I will go to the king, even though it is against the law. And if I perish, I perish.'" And then in 5.1: "On the third day Esther put on her royal robes and stood in the inner court of the palace, in front of the king's hall. " In this case, "on the third day" is equivalent to "for three days, night or day".

1 Samuel 30.12: "He ate and was revived, for he had not eaten any food or drunk any water for three days and three nights. 13 David asked him, "To whom do you belong, and where do you come from?" He said, "I am an Egyptian, the slave of an Amalekite. My master abandoned me when I became ill three days ago. "In this case "for three days and three nights' somehow was fulfilled when his master left him 'three days ago'.

whirlingmerc,

Your first 3 references say nothing concerning daytimes or night times.

With regard to your Esther and Samuel references, nothing in the accounts precludes at least a portion of each one of the daytimes and at least a prortion of each one of the night times.

whirlingmerc,
re: " It's not a math issue, it's a language usage issue. Language usage can be approximate and may not be meant in a wooden literal sense."

So you're saying that if someone told a friend that they were going to study night and day for a test, that the friend wouldn't think that at least a portion of a night time and at least a portion of a daytime would be involved?