I'm sorry but this is not a punctuation issue. The second quote has added an indefinite article..."a" that wasn't in the original quote. I cry foul!
In talking about the Bible, the Greek portions are open for interpretation because there was no punctuation in the Greek and no capital letters either....so what is an example of punctuation altering a scripture based on a specific belief?
How about
Luke 23:43?
This verse is about the evildoer hung alongside Jesus at Calvary. Jesus makes him a promise.
The NASB translates this verse with punctuation like this....
"43 And He said to him, “Truly I say to you, today you shall be with Me in Paradise.”
ESV....43 And he said to him, “Truly, I say to you, today you will be with me in paradise.”
NIV...."43 Jesus answered him, “Truly I tell you, today you will be with me in paradise.”
Most modern translations place the comma after the word "you".
But what if you place the comma after the word "today"?
The NWT reads....
"And he said to him: “Truly I tell you today, you will be with me in Paradise.”
Placing the comma there, alters the whole verse. Why the difference? Which one is correct?
First of all we have to ascertain whether Jesus was in 'Paradise' that day. And whether Jesus meant 'heaven' when he said that. What does the Bible tell us? It says that Jesus stayed on earth to encourage and strengthen his disciples before returning to heaven. When he was resurrected, he told Mary Magdalene....
"Do not cling to me, for I have not yet ascended to the Father; but go to my brothers and say to them, ‘I am ascending to my Father and your Father, to my God and your God.’” (John 20:17) This was three days after he died.
So how long did it take for Jesus to return to his Father in heaven?
Acts 1:3...
"He was seen by them throughout 40 days, and he was speaking about the Kingdom of God.".....
verses 8-11..."But you will receive power when the holy spirit comes upon you, and you will be witnesses of me in Jerusalem, in all Ju·deʹa and Sa·marʹi·a, and to the most distant part of the earth.” 9 After he had said these things, while they were looking on, he was lifted up and a cloud caught him up from their sight. 10 And as they were gazing into the sky while he was on his way, suddenly two men in white garments stood beside them 11 and said: “Men of Galʹi·lee, why do you stand looking into the sky? This Jesus who was taken up from you into the sky will come in the same manner as you have seen him going into the sky.”
So if it took 40 days for Jesus to return to heaven, why would he tell the robber next to him that he would be with him in paradise that day? Jesus was in his tomb for three days.
It is clear that Jesus was not saying he would be with the man in Paradise that day, so the comma placed after the word "today" makes more sense.....it was a promise....made that very day. And since the robber was not a disciple who had 'stuck with Jesus in his trials', (Luke 22:28-30) there is no way that Jesus was promising this man a heavenly reward. He was an unrighteous man, guilty of many crimes for which he was suffering the death penalty, justly. (Luke 23:39-41)
There is no such thing as a death bed conversion leading to heaven. By the time of one's death, one has already made a record with God. They are either written in his book of life or they are not.
So, what 'paradise' was Jesus speaking of then? Where was the first paradise mentioned in Genesis? Wasn't it right here on earth? And didn't Jesus promise to resurrect 'both the righteous and the unrighteous' when he brought his kingdom rulership to this earth? (John 5:28-29; Revelation 21:2-4) The change of heart made by this man, put him in line for a resurrection into the "new earth" that Jesus will rule. (2 Peter 3:13) Until Jesus rules in his kingdom over the earth, all the dead sleep, waiting for his call to come out of their graves. The evildoer will be among them.
So the placement of a comma can have far reaching implications, and steer people in a completely wrong direction IMO. Scripture explains scripture......as it always does.