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Understanding Catholicism/ Dialogue with other

*Paul*

Jesus loves you
writer said:
19 The fact that they are deceased has no bearing on this; it is to their soul that a Catholic prays.
The fact that livin souls shouldn't contact deceased and vice versa bears on this 2 me. Since Scrip condemns.
Thanks

Also surely it is entirely unneccessary since:

Eph 2v16-18: And that he might reconcile both unto God in one body by the cross, having slain the enmity thereby:
And came and preached peace to you which were afar off, and to them that were nigh.
For through him we both have access by one Spirit unto the Father.
 

Katzpur

Not your average Mormon
michel said:
I think the point here is that saints can use their 'praying power' (which, because they are in communion is greater than if they were individual) to help influence change. The fact that they are deceased has no bearing on this; it is to their soul that a Catholic prays.
What on earth do you mean when you say, "The fact that they are deceased has no bearing on this"? How could it not have bearing on it? We can ask the living to pray for us because they are alive and can hear us. There is absolutely nothing scriptural to indicate that we can commune with the dead by our thoughts or even verbally. I know the Catholic response to this will be that it's "tradition." I know it's "tradition." What I would like to know is how and when it started. Who was the first "Saint" named by the Church? When was he or she designated as a "Saint"? And, if new revelation to the Church had long since ceased, what was the rationale for deciding that a deceased person could respond to petitions made by the living to pray for them?
 

porkchop

I'm Heffer!!!
Katzpur said:
What on earth do you mean when you say, "The fact that they are deceased has no bearing on this"? How could it not have bearing on it? We can ask the living to pray for us because they are alive and can hear us. There is absolutely nothing scriptural to indicate that we can commune with the dead by our thoughts or even verbally. I know the Catholic response to this will be that it's "tradition." I know it's "tradition." What I would like to know is how and when it started. Who was the first "Saint" named by the Church? When was he or she designated as a "Saint"? And, if new revelation to the Church had long since ceased, what was the rationale for deciding that a deceased person could respond to petitions made by the living to pray for them?
Im very surprised by your response, katzpur, as i know it is a big part of the mormon faith to be baptised for the dead. If you think its not relevant to pray for the dead, as the catholics do, then what do you think of your own religions practise of baptism for the dead?
 

Katzpur

Not your average Mormon
stimpy said:
Im very surprised by your response, katzpur, as i know it is a big part of the mormon faith to be baptised for the dead. If you think its not relevant to pray for the dead, as the catholics do, then what do you think of your own religions practise of baptism for the dead?
I think you may have misunderstood. I do not take issue with the Catholic practice of praying for the dead. As a matter of fact, I have always found it kind of interesting to note that the Catholics and the Latter-day Saints are different from the Protestants in that we both believe there is something the living can do to benefit the dead in some way.

What I don't understand is the belief that the dead (specifically those designated by the Church as "Saints") have the ability to hear our unspoken prayers and to intercede on our behalf with God. God would have to have made it possible for this to be the case. He can hear our prayers, whether verbally expressed or not, but He is God! I don't believe that the first- or probably even the second-century Christians prayed to anyone but God or believed that God had granted certain deceased individuals with the power to act as mediators with God. I would even go so far as to admit to the possibility that the dead can petition God on behalf of their loved ones, but I just don't understand how we can supposedly communicate with them through prayer or meditation, or by what authority the Church designates which of them has the ability to hear us. That's why I asked when this practice began.

It's not my intention to be disrespectful, but this thread is on a debate forum, and this is an issue that lends itself to debate.
 

porkchop

I'm Heffer!!!
Katzpur said:
I think you may have misunderstood. I do not take issue with the Catholic practice of praying for the dead. As a matter of fact, I have always found it kind of interesting to note that the Catholics and the Latter-day Saints are different from the Protestants in that we both believe there is something the living can do to benefit the dead in some way.

What I don't understand is the belief that the dead (specifically those designated by the Church as "Saints") have the ability to hear our unspoken prayers and to intercede on our behalf with God. God would have to have made it possible for this to be the case. He can hear our prayers, whether verbally expressed or not, but He is God! I don't believe that the first- or probably even the second-century Christians prayed to anyone but God or believed that God had granted certain deceased individuals with the power to act as mediators with God. I would even go so far as to admit to the possibility that the dead can petition God on behalf of their loved ones, but I just don't understand how we can supposedly communicate with them through prayer or meditation, or by what authority the Church designates which of them has the ability to hear us. That's why I asked when this practice began.

It's not my intention to be disrespectful, but this thread is on a debate forum, and this is an issue that lends itself to debate.

So if you dont believe that catholics can pray to the deceased, and seem to think it such a far fetched idea ( im with you on that one), does it not feel odd that you could be(or have been) baptised for someone who is dead, who no longer exists,and it will work. Im sorry katzpur, but it sounds really odd, i mean, logically, it does not make sense, it is not sciptural, and i mean the Bible, not that joseph smith stuff, which i know probably wont make an ounce of diference as mormons take his word over Gods, but if you can not understand how a catholic prays to the dead, how do you understand your practise of baptising for the dead?
 

writer

Active Member
16 http://www.catholic.com/library/purgatory.asp
The Catechism of the Catholic Church defines purgatory as a "purification, so as to achieve the holiness necessary to enter the joy of heaven," which is experienced by those "who die in God’s grace and friendship, but still imperfectly purified" (CCC 1030).
To the contrary: I saw the holy city, New Jerusalem, coming down out of heaven from God... (John-Rv 21:2)

It notes that "this final purification of the elect . . . is entirely different from the punishment of the damned" (CCC 1031).
Correct. Biblically. Once regenerated, always regenerated (OSAS), Jesus-Jn 6:37; Heb 6:1, 11-20; etc

The purification is necessary because, as Scripture teaches, nothing unclean will enter the presence of God in heaven (Rev. 21:27)
Hence it's fair to call one's Christian life today "purgatory" likewise.
"Blessed are the pure in heart for they shall see God" (Mt 5:8; 1 Jn 3:3; 2 Cor 3:18).
As mentioned above, tho, Rv 21:27 (New Jerusalem) is neither heaven, nor in heaven in 27. Rather she's on earth. As John in verses 2, 24, 26 make clear

and, while we may die with our mortal sins forgiven, there can still be many impurities in us, specifically venial sins and the temporal punishment due to sins already forgiven.
1stly, Biblically (apostolically), all sins are, by definition, "mortal" (Paul-Rm 6:23 "For the wages of sin is death, but the gift of God is eternal life in Christ Jesus...").
2ndly, NT terms for temporary punishment of believers (whether for sin or immaturity) in the next age include "outer darkness" (Mt 25:30), "hurt of the second death" (Rv 2:11), "saved so as through fire" (1 Cor 3:15), "stripes, lashes" (Lk 12:48), "cast out, dried up, burned" (Jn 15:6), "weeping and gnashing of teeth, portion with the hypocrites" (Mt 24:51), "lose soul-life" (Mt 16:25).
Lastly, such purification, temporary discipline, of believers is in life. In natural resurrection (eg Mt 25:7; 1 Jn 2:28; 2 Cor 5:10). Not in the least in death or while in decease. Nor begun yet. And, at most, 1000 years (cf Rv 20)

When we die, we undergo what is called the particular, or individual, judgment. Scripture says that "it is appointed for men to die once, and after that comes judgment" (Heb. 9:27). We are judged instantly and receive our reward, for good or ill. We know at once what our final destiny will be.
This izn't completely accurate, altho it seems kinda sufficient.
The Lord Jesus in John 3 said that unbelievers (into Christ) r condemned "already." Altho, given Heb 9:27, of course folks can and should ask Christ for forgiveness and Himself anytime before they pass away (Jn 3:14-16; 4:10, 15-18, 26), and thus be born, eternally, with His life and nature, and thus changed ontologically.
Regarding unbelievers, the judgment in Heb 9:27 IZ their judgment in Rv 20:11-15. Thus not "instant." Tho experientially there duzn't appear to be much diff (cf Jesus-Lk 16:19-31).
Regarding regenerated: we Christians must all "appear before the judgment seat of Christ [2 Cor 5:10; Rm 14:10; 1 Jn 2:28; etc] to receive the things done through the body according to what we've practiced, whether good or bad." This also is not "instant." But rather near the end of Christ's parousia, His physical return, on His way to earth, in the air. And this also has to do with either sharing His 1000 year reign here. Or experiencing outer darkness. It has nothing to do with eternal perdition (cf Jn 6:37; 10:27-30; Heb 6; etc)

At the end of time, when Jesus returns, there will come the general judgment to which the Bible refers, for example, in Matthew 25:31-32: "When the Son of man comes in his glory, and all the angels with him, then he will sit on his glorious throne. Before him will be gathered all the nations, and he will separate them one from another as a shepherd separates the sheep from the goats." In this general judgment all our sins will be publicly revealed (Luke 12:2–5).
To the contrary: Mt 25:31-32, however large, at the end of this age, after Armageddon, is a specific judgment. Christ will judge the living nations there. Based on how they treated His children on earth during the great tribulation. Luke 12:2-5 applies then. Equally as it applies to the judgment of the deceased unbornagain (to coin a term) in Revelation 20. Or of believers in 2 Cor 5; Rm 14. Neither Mt 25:31-46 nor Rv 20:11-15 include or involve any born anew. Our particular judgment's referenced in Mt 24:45-51; 25:1-13, 14-30; and obliquely in Rv 20:4, 6 and 22:12.
As 20:5 reveals: these two "general" resurrections and judgments are separated by 1000 years (cf also Jn 5:21-30)

Augustine said...
Mebbe nex.
Thanx
 

Katzpur

Not your average Mormon
stimpy said:
So if you dont believe that catholics can pray to the deceased, and seem to think it such a far fetched idea ( im with you on that one), does it not feel odd that you could be(or have been) baptised for someone who is dead, who no longer exists,and it will work. Im sorry katzpur, but it sounds really odd, i mean, logically, it does not make sense, it is not sciptural, and i mean the Bible, not that joseph smith stuff, which i know probably wont make an ounce of diference as mormons take his word over Gods, but if you can not understand how a catholic prays to the dead, how do you understand your practise of baptising for the dead?
Stimpy,

This thread is about Catholicism and not Mormonism. It would be unfair of me to derail it by getting into a discussion with you about baptism for the dead, a doctrine which, contrary to what you may believe, is entirely scriptural ("and I mean the Bible, not that Josesph Smith stuff"). However, if you'd like to check out the following thread, I would be happy to respond to any questions you may have on this practice:

http://www.religiousforums.com/forum/showthread.php?t=35658

Incidentally, we do not take Joseph Smith's word over God's. But again, if you'd like to debate that issue, feel free to start a new thread on the subject.
 

athanasius

Well-Known Member
I will not ever debate Mr Writer again as he has proven himself to be quite uncharitable and judgmental in our debate on the Eucharist and the Blessed Virgin Mary. So this is Not written to Mr writer. But to any one else who would like to read why Catholics believe in the concept Purgatory Here are 2 documents illistrating why we do.

The first is this from the "Nazareth resource library" it is http://www.cin.org/users/james/files/how2purg.htm

The second is the historical evidence for the roots of this doctrine in early Christian history: It show the fathers like Augustine showing proof for this concept. It is
http://www.catholic.com/library/Roots_of_Purgatory.asp


God bless you all In Jesus through Mary.
athanasius
 

James the Persian

Dreptcredincios Crestin
Katzpur said:
What I don't understand is the belief that the dead (specifically those designated by the Church as "Saints") have the ability to hear our unspoken prayers and to intercede on our behalf with God.
You do realise that when we say intercede, we and the RCs merely mean lend their prayers to ours, don't you? (Oh, and there is compelling evidence of prayer 'to' martyrs in the Roman catacombs, so it's an extremely early tradition, the Church didn't initially declare saints (it still doesn't work for us like it does for the RCs) but popular veneration started spontaneously, and there is evidence of saints hearing prayers in Scripture - just try reading Revelation, all to answer a post you made further up the page).
God would have to have made it possible for this to be the case. He can hear our prayers, whether verbally expressed or not, but He is God!
This is precisely what we believe, that saints hear through the grace of God, not through some personal power. You do know about the doctrine of Theosis, don't you?
I don't believe that the first- or probably even the second-century Christians prayed to anyone but God or believed that God had granted certain deceased individuals with the power to act as mediators with God. I would even go so far as to admit to the possibility that the dead can petition God on behalf of their loved ones, but I just don't understand how we can supposedly communicate with them through prayer or meditation, or by what authority the Church designates which of them has the ability to hear us. That's why I asked when this practice began.
Well, I'm afraid that you believe wrong. As I said, there's a lot of evidence of prayer 'to' first century martyrs. By the second century I'm pretty certain I could find Patristic writings referring to the practice. It really has been the tradition of the Church from the beginning. It appears to me that most of your problem with the idea is down to a misunderstanding. Correct me if I'm wrong, but you appear to be envisioning the saint acting as a go between, a sort of messenger. That's not the case at all. I don't pray to my patron saint, tell him what I want and he then trots off and lets God know.

The saints aren't mediators as you put it, but intercessors. If you ask someone here on earth to pray for you, do you think that God doesn't already know what you need before the other person prays? I somehow doubt that. Assuming that you realise that God does already know, then what is the point of asking the other? Is there any benefit at all? If you say yes then you should realise that this is precisely what the saints do when they intercede. We are talking of prayer not some petition in a royal court. I must say that this is the first time I've seen LDS belief on the corporeal nature of God seeming to affect their understanding of other people's beliefs.

James
 
New Life said:
Also surely it is entirely unneccessary since:

Eph 2v16-18: And that he might reconcile both unto God in one body by the cross, having slain the enmity thereby:
And came and preached peace to you which were afar off, and to them that were nigh.
For through him we both have access by one Spirit unto the Father.
If it's "entirely unnecessary" to ask saints in heaven to pray for you, then by the same token it's "entirely unnecesary" to ask Christians here on Earth to pray for you. But then, I'm betting you've had a few prayer requests that you've asked your Christian friends and family to pray about, right? ;)
 

*Paul*

Jesus loves you
FerventGodSeeker said:
If it's "entirely unnecessary" to ask saints in heaven to pray for you, then by the same token it's "entirely unnecesary" to ask Christians here on Earth to pray for you. But then, I'm betting you've had a few prayer requests that you've asked your Christian friends and family to pray about, right? ;)

Perhaps the word "entirely" was incorrect, but if i were alone on an island I would have just as equall access to the father and He would hear my prayers just as well as if there were several people praying for me.
But the catholic arguement that because a "saint" is already in heaven, their prayers have more efficacy than ours on earth, that does not hold scripturally, it breaks the command not to contact the deceased also.
 

James the Persian

Dreptcredincios Crestin
New Life said:
Perhaps the word "entirely" was incorrect, but if i were alone on an island I would have just as equall access to the father and He would hear my prayers just as well as if there were several people praying for me.
No Catholic (Orthodox or Roman) would argue otherwise, but isn't it better toitake advantage of the opportunities you have? Scripture is clear on the worth of prayers of a righteous man.
But the catholic arguement that because a "saint" is already in heaven, their prayers have more efficacy than ours on earth, that does not hold scripturally,
That isn't the argument. The prayers of the saints are, as Scripture states clearly, efficacious becaus the saints are righteous. They also happen to be in heaven because they are righteous but it is the righteousness and not the position in heaven which, very Scripturally indeed, makes the prayer efficacious.
it breaks the command not to contact the deceased also.
No. God is God of the living. They are not dead but alive in God. We're not talking about communing with evil spirits or necromancy here but saying that God allows them to hear our prayers through His Grace. The prayers still go to God whether we ask the help of the saints or not.

James
 
New Life said:
Perhaps the word "entirely" was incorrect, but if i were alone on an island I would have just as equall access to the father and He would hear my prayers just as well as if there were several people praying for me.
This would depend on both your spiritual state at the time you were stranded, and the spiritual state of those you asked to pray for you.
But the catholic arguement that because a "saint" is already in heaven, their prayers have more efficacy than ours on earth, that does not hold scripturally,
How so? Scripture states that the prayers of a righteous man are powerful and effective; saints in heaven are completely righteous (not only "declared" righteous, but they actually ARE in actuality righteous), whereas we are not completely righteous here on earth.
it breaks the command not to contact the deceased also
What command are you speaking of? You realize that all people in heaven are not "dead" in spirit; they are quite conscious and alive in Christ.
 

*Paul*

Jesus loves you
Geoffthe3rd said:
I noticed that many people really do not understand Catholicism, as such with other religions, and im just wanting to help clear up what we do believe and why. I would enjoy getting into debates bout whether the Church is right or wrong on an issue, but hopefully we can keep it somewhat civil.

The Vatican Council II Documents of the Roman Catholic Church teach:


“For in the sacrifice of the Mass
Our Lord is immolated when ‘he begins to be present sacramentally as the spiritual food of the faithful under the appearances of bread and wine.’ It was for this purpose that Christ entrusted this sacrifice to the [Roman Catholic] Church, that the faithful might share in it both spiritually, by faith and charity, and sacramentally, through the banquet of Holy Communion. Participation in the Lord’s Supper is always communion with Christ offering himself for us as a sacrifice to the Father.”


Vatican Council II: The Conciliar and Post Conciliar Documents ,No. 9, Eucharisticum Mysterium, 25 May 1967, Austin Flannery, O. P., Gen. Editor (Northport, NY: Costello Publ. Co., 1975) Vol. I, Sec. 3, pp. 102-103.





tr.v. im·mo·lat·ed, im·mo·lat·ing, im·mo·lates
  1. To kill as a sacrifice.
  2. To kill (oneself) by fire.
  3. To destroy.
Why does Jesus have to be re-sacrificed at every mass? It is surely more than a re-presentation when you use the word immolate.



 
New Life said:
The Vatican Council II Documents of the Roman Catholic Church teach:​




“For in the sacrifice of the Mass
Our Lord is immolatedwhen ‘he begins to be present sacramentally as the spiritual food of the faithful under the appearances of bread and wine.’


It was
for this purpose that Christ entrusted this sacrifice to the [Roman Catholic]
Church, that the faithful might share in it both spiritually, by faith and charity, and sacramentally, through the banquet of Holy Communion. Participation in the Lord’s Supper is always communion with Christ offering himself for us as a sacrifice to the Father.”






Vatican Council II: The Conciliar and Post Conciliar Documents


,No. 9, Eucharisticum Mysterium, 25 May 1967, Austin Flannery, O. P., Gen. Editor (Northport, NY: Costello Publ. Co., 1975) Vol. I, Sec. 3, pp. 102-103.














tr.v. im·mo·lat·ed, im·mo·lat·ing, im·mo·lates
  1. To kill as a sacrifice.
  2. To kill (oneself) by fire.
  3. To destroy.
Why does Jesus have to be re-sacrificed at every mass? It is surely more than a re-presentation when you use the word immolate.







You must have missed the part which said, "he begins to be present sacramentally as the spiritual food of the faithful." As I understand it, this is referring to a spiritual change in the elements, not a physical change in the physical makeup of the elements. Protestants tend to take these descriptions to the extreme and accuse Catholics of cannibalism, but they miss the point that the changes to the elements are spiritual, not physical.
 

James the Persian

Dreptcredincios Crestin
New Life said:

Why does Jesus have to be re-sacrificed at every mass? It is surely more than a re-presentation when you use the word immolate.

It's not a re-sacrifice. Christ's sacrifice was eternal, not just a historical momenet in time thing. The Eucharist is participation in that eternal sacrifice . Surely you wouldn't seek to circumscribe God with time? This also, is not a peculiarly RC belief, both us and the Oriental Orthodox also believe identically on this. It's only the Protestants who differ, but then most Protestants also deny the Real Presence, so that's hardly surprising.

James
 

porkchop

I'm Heffer!!!
Katzpur said:
Stimpy,

This thread is about Catholicism and not Mormonism. It would be unfair of me to derail it by getting into a discussion with you about baptism for the dead, a doctrine which, contrary to what you may believe, is entirely scriptural ("and I mean the Bible, not that Josesph Smith stuff"). However, if you'd like to check out the following thread, I would be happy to respond to any questions you may have on this practice:

http://www.religiousforums.com/forum/showthread.php?t=35658

Incidentally, we do not take Joseph Smith's word over God's. But again, if you'd like to debate that issue, feel free to start a new thread on the subject.

Sorry to have gotten sidetracked, yea, i'll start up a new thread on the subject. Will be back later tonight as i gotta do some work, look forward to it.
 

Katzpur

Not your average Mormon
JamesThePersian said:
You do realise that when we say intercede, we and the RCs merely mean lend their prayers to ours, don't you?
Yes, I realize that. It's the idea that we can communicate to them, to ask them to do this that bothers me.

(Oh, and there is compelling evidence of prayer 'to' martyrs in the Roman catacombs, so it's an extremely early tradition, the Church didn't initially declare saints (it still doesn't work for us like it does for the RCs) but popular veneration started spontaneously, and there is evidence of saints hearing prayers in Scripture - just try reading Revelation, all to answer a post you made further up the page).
Okay, thank you. I stand corrected then. I never have said I know everything about this tradition. :)

You do know about the doctrine of Theosis, don't you?
Apparently not.

Correct me if I'm wrong, but you appear to be envisioning the saint acting as a go between, a sort of messenger. That's not the case at all. I don't pray to my patron saint, tell him what I want and he then trots off and lets God know.
LOL. No, that's not quite how I envisioned it, James. I realize that they are merely praying for you, along with you. I suspect that if I understood the doctrine of Theosis, that might help. But the Roman Catholics don't believe in Theosis, do they? Would their doctrine concerning the Saints' intercession be different from yours?

I must say that this is the first time I've seen LDS belief on the corporeal nature of God seeming to affect their understanding of other people's beliefs.
Sorry, but you lost me here. Please clarify if you think it's an important point.

Thanks for your response. It was not my intention to be demeaning. Perhaps, as you suggested, it's more of a misunderstanding than anything. If you want to explain theosis, and think that would help me out, I'll watch for your answer.
 

Quiddity

UndertheInfluenceofGiants
Katzpur said:
Yes, I realize that. It's the idea that we can communicate to them, to ask them to do this that bothers me.

Help me understand what is so horrible about this idea?
I think it's an absolutely beautiful thing that I can be in communion with the Saints of the past.
 

writer

Active Member
16 re Dear Mr Victor's http://www.catholic.com/library/purgatory.asp
cont.
Augustine said, in The City of God, that "temporary punishments are suffered by some in this life only, by others after death, by others both now and then...
I mus disagree in part w/ dear brother Aug 'cuz i doubt if anyone suffers not at all in life.
In addition, as to believers: life's by definition "purgatory" if we use that word.
Luke recorded Paul, the apostle, speaking in Ac 14:22 that "through many tribulations we must enter the kingdom of God." (For instance, altho i 'n he've both apologized to one another, and although we're brothers in Christ, dear Mr A 'n i seem to perhaps maybe to cause one another a teeny sufferin.) Christ Himself, on earth, was "a man of sorrows and acquainted with grief.; and like one from whom men hide their faces, He was despised; and we didn't esteem Him. Surely He's borne our sicknesses, and carried our sorrows; yet we ourselves esteemed Him stricken, smitten of God and afflicted..." (Isa 53:3-4)

...but all of them before that last and strictest judgment" (21:13). It is between the particular and general judgments, then, that the soul is purified of the remaining consequences of sin: "I tell you, you will never get out till you have paid the very last copper" (Luke 12:59).
Aug's generally correct, Biblically, that the judgment at God's great white throne in Rv 20:11-15 is "general." But he's mistaken if he means to suggest that it includes either believers (it doesn't), or includes All others (it doesn't--Mt 25:31-46; Rv 19:20; 20:10)

One argument anti-Catholics often use to attack purgatory is the idea that the Catholic Church makes money from promulgating the doctrine. Without purgatory, the claim asserts, the Church would go broke. Any number of anti-Catholic books claim the Church owes the majority of its wealth to this doctrine. But the numbers just don’t add up.
I can't say whether this's true or not. Especially since Mr Victor's Catholicism website's the first place i ever heard such a thing. In any case, an historical, and vile, related abuse is precisely what triggered Martin Luther disgust, protest, and desire to reform that church in his day. For which it (thankfully, and sovereignly of God) excommunicated him from itself

When a Catholic requests a memorial Mass for the dead—that is, a Mass said for the benefit of someone in purgatory—it is customary to give the parish priest a stipend, on the principles that the laborer is worth his hire (Luke 10:7)
The first question this raises to me, Biblically (especially since it quotes the Bible, is:
What on earth is, or is s'pose to be, a "Mass"?

and that those who preside at the altar share the altar’s offerings (1 Cor. 9:13–14).
Neither in 1 Cor, nor anywhere, did Paul (nor anyone in the NT or O), celebrate a "Mass." Nor is Paul's reference to the OT priesthood and temple with altar meant to suggest that there is such an outward ceremonialism, formality, or furniture in God's NT economy

...and certainly not the Church, which does not receive the money anyway.
Evidently Martin Luther's reform succeeded in that regard

Fundamentalists may be fond of saying the Catholic Church "invented" the doctrine of purgatory to make money,
Question for the author of this strawman: What's a fundamentalist? (Mebbe he answers further down in his article.)
In any case, becuz the author writes such a thing: perhaps it's fair to say that at least one Cathoic may be fond of saying that "fundamentalists" may be fond of saying Catholicism invented "Purgatory" for money.
Lastly: this comment, apparently, may serve the purpose of deflecting from a much more crucial matter, historically: that Catholicism's Pope and other profiteers in its hierarchy used "Purgatory" to attempt to make a obscene profit in 1500s Germany. Becuz o' which they eventually lost most of Germany

Most professional anti-Catholics—the ones who make their living attacking "Romanism"—seem to place the blame on Pope Gregory the Great, who reigned from A.D. 590–604.
Again: "professional anti-Catholics"---something id've never heard of apart from this "Catholic Answers" website.
Interestingly, from my study of history: i myself date Catholicism, as we know it today (its Papal system being recognized or submitted to by a large population in the West), from Gregory "the Great," 590-604, who was a master politician and administrator in that way

the request of Monica, mother of Augustine, who asked her son, in the fourth century, to remember her soul in his Masses. This would make no sense if she thought her soul would not benefit from prayers, as would be the case if she were in hell or in the full glory of heaven.
It has a kind of sentimental sense (cf some superstitious saints in Corinth in 1 Cor 15:29). But spiritually, and New Testamentally, such a request of Monica (if true) makes no sense and's out of accord w/ the apostles' teaching

Christians during the persecutions of the first three centuries recorded prayers for the dead. Indeed, some of the earliest Christian writings outside the New Testament, like the Acts of Paul and Thecla and the Martyrdom of Perpetua and Felicity (both written during the second century), refer to the Christian practice of praying for the dead. Such prayers would have been offered only if Christians believed in purgatory, even if they did not use that name for it. (See Catholic Answers’ Fathers Know Best tract The Existence of Purgatory for quotations from these and other early Christian sources.)
Some Christians during Paul's time in the first century were "baptized for the dead" (1 Cor 15:29). Others, in the NT, did worse, or seriously harmful, things. That, however, just like prayers in catacombs or in other nonapostolic Christian writings, does not prove that mispractices or superstitions, such as praying for the dead, are valid or effectual. New Testamentally-speaking: they're not

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