Saying or writing Jehovah, isn't wrong...

Faithofchristian said:

Then maybe you can show as to where God stated his name in the KJV bible and the Jewish Torah,
Seeing how both of them are stating the same thing, But no mentioning of God saying his name ( Jehovah)

The KJV bible
Exodus 3:15--"And God said moreover unto Moses, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, the Lord God of your fathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, hath sent me unto you: this is my name for ever, and this is my memorial unto all generations"


The Jewish Torah
Exodus 3:15---"And God said further to Moses, "So shall you say to the children of Israel, 'The Lord God of your forefathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, has sent me to you.' This is My name forever, and this is how I should be mentioned in every generation"

As you can see that God said nothing about giving his name.
In either the KJV bible or the Torah.

As I have come across this very thing before with Jehovah witnesses, as the Jehovah witnesses are known for deleting and adding to God's word.
As the Jehovah witnesses are big on putting the name ( Jehovah) in places where it's not mention.
God gave warning two times about adding and deleting from his word in the books of Deuteronomy and the book of Revelation.


Deuteronomy 4:2--"Ye shall not add unto the word which I command you, neither shall ye diminish ought from it, that ye may keep the commandments of the Lord your God which I command you"

And in the book of Revelation 22:18-19--
18--"For I testify unto every man that heareth the words of the prophecy of this book, If any man shall add unto these things, God shall add unto him the plagues that are written in this book:

19-- "And if any man shall take away from the words of the book of this prophecy, God shall take away his part out of the book of life, and out of the holy city, and from the things which are written in this book"

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Psalms 83:18.

Why are some "LORD"s all capitalized, and others ("Lord") not? Psalms 8:9 So, who's guilty of changing?

Tumah said:

It looks like you've turned to just shooting what you think to be factoids at me, rather than responding to the actual content of my response.

I'm just going to give you the benefit of the doubt and assume you're trying to be inflammatory, rather than that you're stupid and don't realize you're moving the conversation outside neutral territory.
Ignoring that part, in Psalm 110:1 we find the Tetragrammaton and the word "adoni". The word "adoni" (the 'i' is pronounced as a long 'e') means, "my master". This is not the same as the word Adon-ai (where the 'ai' is pronounced as a long 'i') which refers to G-d. They are spelled the same in Hebrew, but the vowelization points are different.


I have no idea what you're talking about and please don't explain it either.


I'm not sure what point you're trying to make here. I'm guessing this is part of the "shot random factoids at him" technique.

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Just curious: what's the difference between ' factoids' and ' facts'?

I can guarantee you, @URAVIP2ME is not trying to be inflammatory.

Just trying to answer with facts.

Hockeycowboy said:

Just curious: what's the difference between ' factoids' and ' facts'?

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I can guarantee you, @URAVIP2ME is not trying to be inflammatory.

Just trying to answer with facts.

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Answering would mean that his response should somehow relate to what I've said. The header and footer of his last response did not.

Hockeycowboy said:

Psalms 83:18.

Why are some "LORD"s all capitalized, and others ("Lord") not? Psalms 8:9 So, who's guilty of changing?

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It's totally amazing that you haven't a clue or idea why LORD is all capitalized, and others
( Lord ) is not.
It's so simple to figure out why.
Give it some deep thought.

Faithofchristian said:

It's totally amazing that you haven't a clue or idea why LORD is all capitalized, and others
( Lord ) is not.
It's so simple to figure out why.
Give it some deep thought.

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But I do know: that's where the Divine Name was in the original manuscript.

Why have modern translators taken it out? It only makes passages more confusing.

Like at Psalms 110:1, Psalms 8:1, etc.

Hockeycowboy said:

But I do know: that's where the Divine Name was in the original manuscript.

Why have modern translators taken it out? It only makes passages more confusing.

Like at Psalms 110:1, Psalms 8:1, etc.

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There's nothing wrong about
Psalm 110:1 and Psalm 8:1.

It's you not understanding what is being said.
Did you ever stop to think, maybe it's not the translators of the Greek and Hebrew language into English of long ago.

But those of this modern age that are incorporating their teachings into all those other books what they supposedly call the bible.

Disciple of Jesus said:

You totally went into impractical, and even what I would call abstract, concerning this, however. In other words, textually, you are going to have the name written, regardless of your bad 'refutation', of what I wrote. So, your 'refutation', isn't what we are reading, in some contexts, anyway.

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It stays the same, As there is nothing wrong about Psalm 110:1 and Psalm 8:1.

Just because you can't figure it out, that's no one's else's fault.

Faithofchristian said:

It stays the same, As there is nothing wrong about Psalm 110:1 and Psalm 8:1.

Just because you can't figure it out, that's no one's else's fault.

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Bad argument.

Disciple of Jesus said:

Bad argument.

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Nope not at all, it's a very good argument

Can you explain why LORD is all capitals and the other Lord is not all capitals in Psalm 110:1 and Psalm 8:1.

Why is that?

Faithofchristian said:

Nope not at all, it's a very good argument

Can you explain why LORD is all capitals and the other Lord is not all capitals in Psalm 110:1 and Psalm 8:1.

Why is that?

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Maybe it might help to compare each verse in two different translations?

Psalm 110:1, KJV:
"The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool."

(Who's talking to whom?)
Now, the ASV:
"Jehovah saith unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, Until I make thine enemies thy footstool."

(Jesus used this Scripture once, recorded @ Mark 12:35-37, teaching in the Temple.)

Psalm 8:1, KJV:
"O LORD our Lord, how excellent is thy name in all the earth! who hast set thy glory above the heavens."

(What name is excellent?)

The ASV:
O Jehovah, our Lord, How excellent is thy name in all the earth, Who hast set thy glory upon the heavens!

(Oh, that name!)

Hockeycowboy said:

Maybe it might help to compare each verse in two different translations?

Psalm 110:1, KJV:
"The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool."

(Who's talking to whom?)
Now, the ASV:
"Jehovah saith unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, Until I make thine enemies thy footstool."

(Jesus used this Scripture once, recorded @ Mark 12:35-37, teaching in the Temple.)

Psalm 8:1, KJV:
"O LORD our Lord, how excellent is thy name in all the earth! who hast set thy glory above the heavens."

(What name is excellent?)

The ASV:
O Jehovah, our Lord, How excellent is thy name in all the earth, Who hast set thy glory upon the heavens!

(Oh, that name!)

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You still don't have it right, nice try, but try again.

So why is the first ( LORD) all in capital letters and the second (Lord ) in lower case letters.
Psalm 110:1 and Psalm 8:1.
( LORD) ( Lord)

It's very easy to figure this out.

Faithofchristian said:

Nope not at all, it's a very good argument

Can you explain why LORD is all capitals and the other Lord is not all capitals in Psalm 110:1 and Psalm 8:1.

Why is that?

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Why don't you explain why it is written like that. Actually, it doesn't seem very apt, note how the intent of importance, if that was the intent, actually doesn't follow with the
Specification, 'our Lord'.

The original KJV doesn't use a letter difference, by the way. In other words, Psalm 8:1
Is, in the original,
'Lord', & 'Lord',

Tumah said:

I understand why, as a Christian, that makes sense to you. Your god can take the limited form of a person, so he can also be expressed in the limiting form of a name, so there's no problem with reading those parts of the Tanach literally.
The Jewish G-d cannot be defined in any sort of finite terms at all, so all terms in Tanach used to relate to G-d can only be understood relatively. G-d's Names can only be understood as perceptions of G-d's administration of the world, because all of our relation to G-d is only through His administration of the world. When G-d says that the Tetragrammaton is His Name, He's saying that this is the most basic level of administration, that out of this form of administration, all other perceptions of administration descend.
For instance, we have the Tetragrammaton which connotes G-d's Causative-ness. We have the Name Elo-him, which expresses G-d's Power. When G-d creates the world, He is causing the world to come into existence. But the aspect that is brought to the fore, is G-d's Power out of which all the natures of creation are brought into existence. When G-d grants overflowing success to the Patriarchs, G-d is causing their success. But what is brought to the fore, is G-d's Beneficience denoted by the Name Sha-dai. The aspect that my Patriarchs did not experience for themselves, was G-d's fulfillment of all the promises He made to them concerning their children. That experience of the fulfillment of G-d's promise is an experience of His Causative-ness, which here is expressed as G-d's ability to cause events to occur according to His Will.
So for Jewish people, all the Names the Tanach uses for these forms of administration are called Names, while the Tetragrammaton is considered the most central of them.

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Thank you for your informative reply, however please keep in mind that God can Not take the limited form of a person.
That is meaning a limited form of a 'human person' as Christendom (apostate Christianity) teaches.
Hebrews 9:24 does consider the God of the Holy Scriptures as a person but a spirit person.
God sent his pre-human heavenly Son to Earth for us to be Messiah.
The Tetragrammaton God created the pre-human Jesus in the heavens.
Revelation 3:14 teaches that heavenly Jesus was the 'beginning of the creation' (causative-ness) by God.
In other words, pre-human Jesus was, so to speak, first born in the heavens before all other creation.
So, yes God ' causes to become ' (causative-ness) starting with pre-human heavenly Jesus.
Yes, too God's ability to 'cause events according to His will or purpose' as per Genesis 3:15.
Any thoughts about that first (causative-ness) prophecy_________

I'm surprised that no one has posted this...

Disciple of Jesus said:

Why don't you explain why it is written like that. Actually, it doesn't seem very apt, note how the intent of importance, if that was the intent, actually doesn't follow with the Specification, 'our Lord'.

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King James translated into English the Tetragrammaton (YHWH) as LORD to distinguish between God and Lord Jesus.
As to why they hid the Tetragrammaton they would have to answer that for you.
If they are resurrected during Jesus' coming millennium-long day of governing over Earth, then there will be, at that time, to ask then ask them why they did such a thing.
Jewish superstition was teaching Not to pronounce God's name, but Jesus taught to hallow (hold sacred) God's name. Also, I find what Jesus believed is found at John 17:6 and John 17:26.

Disciple of Jesus said:

The original KJV doesn't use a letter difference, by the way. In other words, Psalm 8:1
Is, in the original,
'Lord', & 'Lord',

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I am wondering to which ' original ' you are referring _____________
I find in the old Hebrews Scriptures at Psalms 8:1 by David, ' 'Hashem ', our Master, how mighty is Your Name......'
Thus the Tetragrammaton at Psalms 8:1 in Hebrew would be Yahweh or Yehowah and Latinized into English as Jehovah our Lord......

Who are the two (2) LORD/Lords being talked about in Psalms 110 _____________

Tumah said:

Of course for me, Matthew isn't an authority whether your interpretation of his position is truly his position or not. I'm also not sure what you mean by "personal Tetragrammaton name". The Tetragrammaton is only one Name of four (tetra) letters.
Elohim can and is used as a title for G-d when it's prefixed with a definite article. Otherwise, the correct form the word should take as a title is "eloah". The same for 'adon'. In the plural (as Elo-him and Ado-nai) these words uniquely identify a specific individual. That is exactly the definition of a name.

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I find Elo-him and Ado-nai are 'titles' Like Lord and God are titles and Not the Tetragrammaton (YHWY) name.
Mr. and Mrs. him and her, are Not personal names although they can refer to a specific person.
To me the Tetragrammaton name refers to one specific person: the causative God of the Holy Scriptures.

Faithofchristian said:

It's totally amazing that you haven't a clue or idea why LORD is all capitalized, and others
( Lord ) is not.
It's so simple to figure out why.
Give it some deep thought.

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I find the ' clue ' is because when King James had the Bible translated into English the Tetragrammaton (YHWY) was translated into English into all upper-case LORD, whereas the 'second Lord' of Psalms 110 is in some lower-case letters because the Tetragrammaton does Not appear. So, who are the different two (2) LORD/Lords mentioned ______

URAVIP2ME said:

I find the ' clue ' is because when King James had the Bible translated into English the Tetragrammaton (YHWY) was translated into English into all upper-case LORD, whereas the 'second Lord' of Psalms 110 is in some lower-case letters because the Tetragrammaton does Not appear. So, who are the different two (2) LORD/Lords mentioned ______

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Unto whom was God referring to, when God said to king David in
Psalm 110:1--"The Lord said unto my lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool"

Notice ( The LORD said) this being
the LORD God of creation.
( Unto my lord) this being king David

When a person finds (LORD) ( Lord) in capitals, this indicates the Lord God of creation

Now when (lord) is in lower case letters, this being a human such as king David as being called lord.

When a person finds ( God ) in capital letters, this being the God of creation.

Now when ( god ) in lower case letters, this being a lesser god. Than the God of creation.

Notice in the bible the book of Acts 7:43--"Yea, ye took up the tabernacle of Moloch, and the star of your god Remphan, figures which ye made to worship them: and I will carry you away beyond Babylon"

Notice here ( your god Remphan ) ( god)
Being in lower case letters, indicating a lesser god, than the God of creation.

The same with ( Lord) or ( LORD ) indicating the Lord God.

Than ( lord ) in lower case letters, which is indicating a lesser lord than the Lord God.

In the Book of Matthew Jesus turns to the Pharisees and asks them,

What do you think about the Christ? Whose son is he? (Matthew 22:41-44)

The question in laymen’s terms is, “Of whom is the messiah supposed to be a descendant?”

They said to him, “The son of David.” He said to them, “How then does David in the spirit call him ‘Lord,’ saying, ‘The Lord said to my Lord, “Sit at My right hand, till I make your enemies your footstool?”’ If David then called him Lord, how is he his son?” No one was able to answer him a word, neither did any man from that day forth ask him any more questions. (Matthew 22:41-44)

The answer is, ( Lord ) ( L) in higher case letter, being the Lord God.

The (lord ) ( l ) in lower case letter being king David.
The LORD God said unto my lord king David. sit at my right hand, till I make your enemies your footstool.