The reason I was confused is you changed words on me. In the actual post you said it was "haser" (with a dot below the h). Now you are using "atereth". So why are the vowel points indicating to say it as if it were a plural ending and not as you are saying?
I'm sorry for not being clear about that, something you said earlier made me think you were more familiar with Hebrew grammar. I'll try to explain what I was saying more clearly.
The word
ḥaser means "lacking" and in the context of Hebrew grammar, it refers to missing letters, usually vowel carriers, such as in this case, the vav that should be present between the resh and the tav. The word that is "lacking" is the word
ateroth which makes it appear to be spelled
atereth. I say appear to be, because the vav is only a vowel carrier, so the vowel can still be present even if the vowel carrier is missing. It's just that the spelling becomes atypical for
ataroth. If we ignore the traditional vowelization however, this becomes the typical spelling of the word
atereth.
The reading of
atereth (meaning "crown of" - in singular) is further bolstered by the following word
tihiye - "[she] shall be" which is in the singular form as well. In Hebrew, verbs take on the form of the noun they are connected to, so if the subject here was a plural of crowns, the correct verb should have been
tihiyu, and this is not just a question of different vowelization, it's the last letter of the word (a "heh" instead of a "vav") that is different in the text itself.
As you may know, the vowel points are not part of the text but are traditions that were passed to us from the Masoretes of Babylon (there was another tradition from Jerusalem which I believe had originally passed to the Yemenites, or maybe some other Middle Eastern country, but I can't recall and I believe they switched eventually). It's from the Masoretic Text that the wider non-Jewish world determined the pronounce the Tetragrammaton as "Jehovah" - this is the most frequent vowelization that the Masoretes use for that word and the one that caught on among non-Jews.
The point being, that now we are left with two ways to interpret this verse - both of which require adding a bit more information into the text.
The Masoretic interpretation: "And the crowns, [each one] shall be... for a remembrance in the Sanctuary"
The non-vowelized interpretation: "And the crown of [kingship] shall be ... for a remembrance in the Sanctuary".
I add in the word kingship their instead of priesthood, since earlier in the text it says that at least two crowns were made and we have two events: placement on Joshua's head and putting away in the Sanctuary, so it's logical to understand it as one and one.
All that being said, I'm an Orthodox Jew and I also follow in the Masoretic tradition. So I don't think the second interpretation is the literal interpretation as the Masoretic vowelization is primary. But I do think that the verse is alluding to the idea that one crown in particular was put away, as there was no one capable of wearing it at the time.
Also note the word for crowns mentioned previously, to be placed on the head of the man symbolic of the Branch, is plural in form. So crowns were to be placed on him.
No, it doesn't say that crowns were placed on him. It literally says, "And you shall take silver and gold and you shall make crowns. And you shall put on the head of Joshua the son of Jehozadak the High Priest". There's no mention at all of how many of the crowns were to be placed on his head. Contextually, it doesn't seem likely that they would put multiple crowns on his head. The following prophecy discusses a king and a priest, while Joshua is only a High Priest. Presumably, one crown was meant for the king and the other for the High Priest. Since there was no king present at the time, only one of the crowns was put on Joshua.
I find this very interesting. I do agree that this is supposed to be talking about God here in Psalms 110:5. This is one of the places where it is said the scribes replaced the name with adonai. (Either way it would be talking about God.)
I don't see what difference it makes if the word is the Tetragrammaton or Ad-nai, when they both reference G-d.
Do you think when it says "right hand" in verse one, that it is dealing with position relative to one another, or is it a Hebrew idiom, that somehow deals with power? Because if you notice in verse one, it makes it sound like someone is to sit at the right hand of YHWH, yet in verse five, it sounds like YHWH is at their right hand. (if it is position, who would be at who's right hand?)
I guess what I am asking, is if there is any kind of Hebrew idiom regarding right hand that is referring to power? For instance Benjamin means son of my right (or) right hand. Can or does this mean "son of my power"?
It can be understood as a reference to power. Psalm 118:16 says, "the right [hand] of G-d makes valor (ie. war)". In this verse, G-d is telling the Abraham/David/Messiah that He is going to fight their wars for them. So "sit at my right", is kind of saying that G-d will wage war on their behalf. Later, the verse is expressing the same idea by saying that G-d sits at their right, so that when Abraham/David/Messiah is swinging their swords, it's G-d who's really doing the swinging, which is why they tend to win.