Desert Snake
Veteran Member
Something I wrote, concerning contradictions in the Bible. In this context, same faith debates. I believe that many Christians might be interpreting some verses incorrectly, and, this is a good example:
The Gospels were written by different people, they may present slightly different wording concerning God. The reason why this isn't a problem, is because Jesus Himself informs the religion, at various places. In other words, you default to what you know the religion is, by direct inference, even if there is confusion from gospel to gospel, because of wording. This always informs the correct interpretation, and, brings a realness to the Gospels, as one realizes that they truly are personal gospels, concerning Jesus.
Now, in the instance of an argument, or wrong, contradictory interpretation, you default to textual direct inference. Most of the contradictions actually, are from a wrong methodology in the first place, rather than an actual 'contradiction'. The Greek language word usage can be utilized to determine whether something is contradicting, or, the word in English needs specific interpretation, /to negate a contradiction/. In the instance where you don't know, or it is either or, you have to interpret according to what it should mean.
Now, in the Greek language, Jesus is 'God', in the text. Hence, at John 1:18
We would surmise that 'God', here, means Jesus form, Himself, not the Abba, for example.
Hence , 'Jesus is one with the Abba', we know that Jesus declaring God, means Jesus as God, in JESUS form, and in Yisrael.
Hence, the God that wasn't perceived, is JESUS, not the Abba.
Thusly, even though at first, it might seem like there is a contradiction there, there isn't one, and, Yochanan, isn't making a 'mistake', either.
Common interpretations of this verse, and it seems a few other verses, in the book of John, present a contradiction; whether they can be interpreted without contradiction , is the objective of this thread.
The Gospels were written by different people, they may present slightly different wording concerning God. The reason why this isn't a problem, is because Jesus Himself informs the religion, at various places. In other words, you default to what you know the religion is, by direct inference, even if there is confusion from gospel to gospel, because of wording. This always informs the correct interpretation, and, brings a realness to the Gospels, as one realizes that they truly are personal gospels, concerning Jesus.
Now, in the instance of an argument, or wrong, contradictory interpretation, you default to textual direct inference. Most of the contradictions actually, are from a wrong methodology in the first place, rather than an actual 'contradiction'. The Greek language word usage can be utilized to determine whether something is contradicting, or, the word in English needs specific interpretation, /to negate a contradiction/. In the instance where you don't know, or it is either or, you have to interpret according to what it should mean.
Now, in the Greek language, Jesus is 'God', in the text. Hence, at John 1:18
We would surmise that 'God', here, means Jesus form, Himself, not the Abba, for example.
Hence , 'Jesus is one with the Abba', we know that Jesus declaring God, means Jesus as God, in JESUS form, and in Yisrael.
Hence, the God that wasn't perceived, is JESUS, not the Abba.
Thusly, even though at first, it might seem like there is a contradiction there, there isn't one, and, Yochanan, isn't making a 'mistake', either.
Common interpretations of this verse, and it seems a few other verses, in the book of John, present a contradiction; whether they can be interpreted without contradiction , is the objective of this thread.
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