There is translation, then there is incorrect interpretation, then there is revision, 'translation', based on incorrect interpretation.
Hence, it clearly is a problem.
When certain interpretations, and 'translations', contradict the Bible, and contradict inference in the Bible, it has to be explained.
As noted in
John 1:18
John 6:45
John 6:46
John 6:47
These do have non contradictory interpretations, like, Jesus was talking to specific people, not making general statements; however, in many interpretations, and now even some Bibles, contradictory 'translations', have been made, by changing word inference.
Those are an example of 'translation' problem.
This follows what and how the verse would be understood, from a direct reading.
New International Version
John chapter 1
18 No one has ever seen God.
The uniquely existing God, who is close to the Father’s side, has revealed him.
45 It is written in the Prophets: They will all be taught by God. Everyone who has heard the Father and learned from him comes to me.
46 No one has seen the Father
except the one who is from God only he has seen the Father.
47 Very truly I tell you, the one who believes has eternal life.
King James Version
John Chapter 1
18 No man hath seen God at any time,
the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him.
45 It is written in the prophets, And they shall be all taught of God. Every man therefore that hath heard, and hath learned of the Father, cometh unto me.
46 Not that any man hath seen the Father,
save he which is of God, he hath seen the Father.
47 Verily, verily, I say unto you, He that believeth on me hath everlasting life..
What is the significant difference in the two translations? Do you know what the original Greek stated concerning the
bold.
There may be a difference in interpretations, bu that does not reflect the differences in translations.
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