• Welcome to Religious Forums, a friendly forum to discuss all religions in a friendly surrounding.

    Your voice is missing! You will need to register to get access to the following site features:
    • Reply to discussions and create your own threads.
    • Our modern chat room. No add-ons or extensions required, just login and start chatting!
    • Access to private conversations with other members.

    We hope to see you as a part of our community soon!

The Inerrant Bible???

Neo Deist

Th.D. & D.Div. h.c.
Even without resorting to the explanation provided by Jewish scholars some 1,500 years before your friend who came up with this "contradiction" was born, what you've written here is still not a contradiction.

Its best to comb through your copypasta before serving it.

Four thousand STALLS = Forty thousand STALLS?

You must be a Republican, because that is some "fuzzy math." :D
 

Tumah

Veteran Member
Four thousand STALLS = Forty thousand STALLS?

You must be a Republican, because that is some "fuzzy math." :D
I'll admit that my math isn't that great, I had to take Math III twice to pass it. But my reading comprehension was fairly good. Again, what you quoted:

1 Kings 4:26And Solomon had forty thousand stalls of horses for his chariots, and twelve thousand horsemen.
2 Chronicles 9:25 And Solomon had four thousand stalls for horses and chariots, and twelve thousand horsemen; whom he bestowed in the chariot cities, and with the king at Jerusalem.

According to how you quoted the verses, 1 Kings says that there were 40,000 stalls of horses that were used for the chariots. But how many chariots were there? 2 Chron. says that there were 4,000 stalls that were used for horses and chariots. So taking both verses together, of the 40,000 stalls that Solomon had, 4,000 of them contained chariots in addition to horses.
Again, this is how you've quoted the verses and I don't necessarily agree on this translation. I'm just pointing out that what you quoted here is not a contradiction.
 

Neo Deist

Th.D. & D.Div. h.c.
I'll admit that my math isn't that great, I had to take Math III twice to pass it. But my reading comprehension was fairly good. Again, what you quoted:

1 Kings 4:26And Solomon had forty thousand stalls of horses for his chariots, and twelve thousand horsemen.
2 Chronicles 9:25 And Solomon had four thousand stalls for horses and chariots, and twelve thousand horsemen; whom he bestowed in the chariot cities, and with the king at Jerusalem.

According to how you quoted the verses, 1 Kings says that there were 40,000 stalls of horses that were used for the chariots. But how many chariots were there? 2 Chron. says that there were 4,000 stalls that were used for horses and chariots. So taking both verses together, of the 40,000 stalls that Solomon had, 4,000 of them contained chariots in addition to horses.
Again, this is how you've quoted the verses and I don't necessarily agree on this translation. I'm just pointing out that what you quoted here is not a contradiction.

Subject to interpretation, and that is why so many people have questioned those verses.
 
Last edited:

Tumah

Veteran Member
Subject to interpretation, and that is why so many people have questioned those verses.
That may be. But then you should have prefaced those verses by saying, "were one so inclined, despite plausible resolutions one could stubbornly maintain that there is a contradiction in the following verses:" etc.

Care to talk about Moses and the Exodus and how there is absolutely no evidence that it ever happened?
I'm not sure that absence of evidence is basis for a strong case against the inerrancy of the Bible.
 

`mud

Just old
Premium Member
4000 stables(stalls) measuring about 4' by 10' with access paths !!!
Let alone 40,000.......you're talking a lot of acreage there !
And the feeding and grooming, and all that poop !!!
Oh yah....it's not errant at all !
~
'mud
 

Akivah

Well-Known Member
4000 stables(stalls) measuring about 4' by 10' with access paths !!!
Let alone 40,000.......you're talking a lot of acreage there !
And the feeding and grooming, and all that poop !!!
Oh yah....it's not errant at all !
~
'mud

Are you saying there isn't room for 40,000 horses on Earth?
 

`mud

Just old
Premium Member
WOW....I totally forgot about this one.
Really, really old.....just like me !
 

1213

Well-Known Member
...1 Kings 4:26 And Solomon had forty thousand stalls of horses for his chariots, and twelve thousand horsemen.
2 Chronicles 9:25 And Solomon had four thousand stalls for horses and chariots, and twelve thousand horsemen; whom he bestowed in the chariot cities, and with the king at Jerusalem.


Don’t you really see the difference between “stalls of horses” and “stalls for horses”? They are not speaking of same matter, therefore there is no contradiction in that.


Genesis 32:30
For I have seen God face to face, and my life is preserved.
John 1:18 No man hath seen God at any time.


Those are not speaking of same God.

Matthew 27:5
And he [Judas] cast down the pieces of silver in the temple, and departed, and went and hanged himself. And the chief priests...bought with them the potter's field.
Acts 1:18 Now this man [Judas] purchased a field with the reward of iniquity; and falling headlong, he burst asunder in the midst, and all his bowels gushed out.

Those can be both true. Judas hang himself, the rope was cut off and he fell.

I wouldn’t have problem with people making mistakes in writing the Bible. But your examples don’t prove it. Your examples prove that the one who has collected them, don’t understand, or wants to deceive people.

You really can’t show even one real mistake in the original Bible. And I think that is strong evidence for that God has really guided the people who wrote and collected it. All you can do is those misinterpretations that tell more about the reader than about the writer.
 
You do know that the 1947 Qumraan finds, show texts that were completely unaltered for up to over 2000 years. The 700 B.C dated fragment of Isaiah 51 even records GOD as the plural 3, when Jews did not accept the TRINITY. Learn facts and physical evidence, personal opinion is of no value when we are talking about ETERNAL SALVATION
 

pearl

Well-Known Member
For Roman Catholics, inerrancy is understood as a consequence of biblical inspiration; it has to do more with the truth of the Bible as a whole than with any theory of verbal inerrancy. Without error, that truth which God wanted put into the sacred writings for the sake of our salvation". What is important is the qualification of "that truth" with "for the sake of our salvation."
 

rosends

Well-Known Member
You do know that the 1947 Qumraan finds, show texts that were completely unaltered for up to over 2000 years. The 700 B.C dated fragment of Isaiah 51 even records GOD as the plural 3, when Jews did not accept the TRINITY. Learn facts and physical evidence, personal opinion is of no value when we are talking about ETERNAL SALVATION
the plural 3? Is there a different plural for 3 as distinct from the plural for 2 or 4? Please explain exactly how that works and thanks.
 
There is a word for the singular, a word for the dual, and a word for plural, where it is commonly known to be 3, unless followed by a higher number. As the people who translated the texts, their reports are public record, not my statement those of the greatest scholars of the 20th century
 
Pearl, you want to use your concepts to trap and limit GOD, but HIS MIND is so far beyond man that we can not even begin to fathom it.
 
Top