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What is 'The Word'?

doppelganger

Through the Looking Glass
sojourner said:
Well...no. I think you're approaching this from a humanist pov. That's not my pov. Your previous post is very telling:
Actually, I'm approaching it from a linguistic POV. The same Hebrew word is used in both Exodus 3:12 and 3:14. In the LXX, it is translated differently in each verse. But that appears that it could be a result of the different manner of verb tense in Hebrew compared to Greek and English. Your understanding of the Hebrew as being more similar to "I shall become" (which is like the "I am becoming" that I had suggested earlier), resolves that situation and allows the Hebrew to function in both places without the word being translated differently depending on one's subjective conclusions about its meaning drawn from the context.

sojourner said:
The point of reference is God, not humanity. God creates us, not the other way around.
That is not an established truth for me. When you abstract your word "God" as a "thing" like that, it no longer means anything to me. But that's a different linguistic discussion.

sojourner said:
I think a better way to say it is simply "I shall become what I shall become."
But that is not what Exodus 3:12 says. I don't know the Hebrew but the Greek LXX has oti esomai meta sou, or "I will be with you" with esomai (" will be") doing the work of our perplexing Hebrew word Ehyeh - the same one from Exodus 3:14 (commonly translated as either "I am" or "I will be") - that apparently has no past, present or future tense. Thus, understood in the **edit "imperfective tense" edit** of Hebrew (as quoted above from the Wiki article), Exodus 3:12 should be read as "I shall become with you."

My comment to which you are responding is not about theology. It's about linguisics, and translation of Hebrew both around and through the Greek.

the doppleganger
 

Earthling

David Henson
doppleganger said:
Actually, I'm approaching it from a linguistic POV. The same Hebrew word is used in both Exodus 3:12 and 3:14. In the LXX, it is translated differently in each verse. But that appears that it could be a result of the different manner of verb tense in Hebrew compared to Greek and English. Your understanding of the Hebrew as being more similar to "I shall become" (which is like the "I am becoming" that I had suggested earlier), resolves that situation and allows the Hebrew to function in both places without the word being translated differently depending on one's subjective conclusions about its meaning drawn from the context.


That is not an established truth for me. When you abstract your word "God" as a "thing" like that, it no longer means anything to me. But that's a different linguistic discussion.


But that is not what Exodus 3:12 says. I don't know the Hebrew but the Greek LXX has oti esomai meta sou, or "I will be with you" with esomai ("I will") doing the work of our perplexing Hebrew word Ehyeh from Exodus 3:14 (commonly translated as either "I am" or "I will be") that apparently has no past, present or future tense. Thus, understood in the "perfective tense" of Hebrew (as quoted above from the Wiki article), Exodus 3:12 should be read as "I shall become with you."

My comment to which you are responding is not about theology. It's about linguisics, and translation of Hebrew both around and through the Greek.

the doppleganger

How comfortable would each of you be with: I shall become what I become? In other words, I shall prove to be what I prove to be.
 

doppelganger

Through the Looking Glass
Earthling said:
How comfortable would each of you be with: I shall become what I become?
Linguistically, I think that's closer than either "I am that I am" or "I will be what I will be" if Wiki is right about verb tenses and the "imperfective" tense in Hebrew.

What that means to me when phrased that way, I'm quite "comfortable" with. Though I was "comfortable" with either of the other versions as well.

Earthling said:
In other words, I shall prove to be what I prove to be.
I'm not sure I see that as an "in other words" for "I shall become what I become".

the doppleganger
 

Earthling

David Henson
doppleganger said:
Linguistically, I think that's closer than either "I am that I am" or "I will be what I will be" if Wiki is right about verb tenses and the "perfective" tense in Hebrew.

What that means to me when phrased that way, I'm quite "comfortable" with. Though I was "comfortable" with either of the other versions as well.



I'm not sure I see that as an "in other words" for "I shall become what I become".

the doppleganger

It is just another way of saying the same thing. He, Jehovah, would become or prove to be what he would. And did.

"I SHALL PROVE TO BE WHAT I SHALL PROVE TO BE." Heb., היהא רשא היהא (’Eh·yeh´ ’Asher´ ’Eh·yeh´), God’s own self-designation; Leeser, "I WILL BE THAT I WILL BE"; Rotherham, "I Will Become whatsoever I please." Gr., E·go´ ei·mi ho on, "I am The Being," or, "I am The Existing One"; Lat., e´go sum qui sum, "I am Who I am." ’Eh·yeh´ comes from the Heb. verb ha·yah´, "become; prove to be." Here ’Eh·yeh´ is in the imperfect state, first person sing., meaning "I shall become"; or, "I shall prove to be." The reference here is not to God’s self-existence but to what he has in mind to become toward others. Compare Ge 2:4, "Jehovah," where the kindred, but different, Heb. verb ha·wah´ appears in the divine name.
 

Willamena

Just me
Premium Member
doppleganger said:
But that is not what Exodus 3:12 says. I don't know the Hebrew but the Greek LXX has oti esomai meta sou, or "I will be with you" with esomai (" will be") doing the work of our perplexing Hebrew word Ehyeh - the same one from Exodus 3:14 (commonly translated as either "I am" or "I will be") - that apparently has no past, present or future tense. Thus, understood in the "perfective tense" of Hebrew (as quoted above from the Wiki article), Exodus 3:12 should be read as "I shall become with you."
That is immanence, yes?
 

doppelganger

Through the Looking Glass
Earthling said:
It is just another way of saying the same thing. He, Jehovah, would become or prove to be what he would. And did.

I appreciate that for you it is another way of saying the same thing. And I don't intend to argue the point with you.

Earthling said:
The reference here is not to God’s self-existence but to what he has in mind to become toward others.

But I can also be read it as a statement regarding what I would make of "God." If "he" shall become the "avenging patron Deity of a paritcular tribe for me," then that it what "he" shall become. If "he" shall become the untouchable watchmaker of the balanced Deist cosmos for me, then that is what "he" shall become. If "he" shall become a mythological meditation on the nature of being for me, then that is what "he" shall become. I don't presume to objectify "God" as anything other than a word representing a subjective experience. So, while I may appreciate the "sense" in which you construe the phrase, it doesn't really mean anything to me in that sense.

the doppleganger
 

may

Well-Known Member
Deut 13:1 said:
Obviously not so clear.

Using the links that you provided let's look at 2 verses:


Link

There's the English of the translation, now tell me what do you notice about the Hebrew...


Link

Now, on what basis does your unanimous translators choose to translate the same word differently? Do they guess? Do they have a randomizer? Come on now, be serious. It's kind of embarassing that less then 2 verses later, the same word, same vowels, is translated so differently.


How embarassing *edit* that they make the same mistake */edit*...


Link

Now, Moon Woman, you were so eager to point out how all of the translations say that
אֶהְיֶה אֲשֶׁר אֶהְיֶה means "I Am that I Am", yet everyone one of those translations makes the same mistake 2 verses prior. :eek:

To this he said: "Because I shall prove to be with you, and this is the sign for you that it is I who have sent you: After you have brought the people out of Egypt, YOU people will serve the [true] God on this mountain."Exodus 3;12 NWT
14 At this God said to Moses: "I SHALL PROVE TO BE WHAT I SHALL PROVE TO BE." And he added: "This is what you are to say to the sons of Israel, ‘I SHALL PROVE TO BE has sent me to YOU.’" NWT
 

Willamena

Just me
Premium Member
may said:

To this he said: "Because I shall prove to be with you, and this is the sign for you that it is I who have sent you: After you have brought the people out of Egypt, YOU people will serve the [true] God on this mountain."Exodus 3;12 NWT
14 At this God said to Moses: "I SHALL PROVE TO BE WHAT I SHALL PROVE TO BE." And he added: "This is what you are to say to the sons of Israel, ‘I SHALL PROVE TO BE has sent me to YOU.’" NWT
Okay, so 'I SHALL PROVE TO BE' is God's name, so the first line is the same as saying, "Because God is with you," or "Because I am with you."
 

Earthling

David Henson
doppleganger said:
I appreciate that for you it is another way of saying the same thing. And I don't intend to argue the point with you.



But I can also be read it as a statement regarding what I would make of "God." If "he" shall become the "avenging patron Deity of a paritcular tribe for me," then that it what "he" shall become. If "he" shall become the untouchable watchmaker of the balanced Deist cosmos for me, then that is what "he" shall become. If "he" shall become a mythological meditation on the nature of being for me, then that is what "he" shall become. I don't presume to objectify "God" as anything other than a word representing a subjective experience. So, while I may appreciate the "sense" in which you construe the phrase, it doesn't really mean anything to me in that sense.

the doppleganger

Okay. First of all, the word god or as you put it "God," shouldn't really enter into it. The same statement could have been made by you, by King David, by Jesus, by any god. In that sense of it, a god could be anything or anyone. Yet what it is and what you or I think it is is not necessarily what it is.

The original statement didn't really apply to you, though in a sense what he has become to you is what he has become to you. That doesn't really matter. The question was what he would become to Pharoah. Through Moses, who was appointed as a god by God.

Bottom line, as you indicated is "what it means to you." Fair enough, but what it means to you isn't nesessarily accurate or based upon accurate knowledge.
 

Earthling

David Henson
Willamena said:
Okay, so 'I SHALL PROVE TO BE' is God's name, so the first line is the same as saying, "Because God is with you," or "Because I am with you."

Explain what that means if you would please.
 

may

Well-Known Member
Willamena said:
Okay, so 'I SHALL PROVE TO BE' is God's name, so the first line is the same as saying, "Because God is with you," or "Because I am with you."
i was making the point that the NWT is an accurate translation.
 

Earthling

David Henson
may said:
i was making the point that the NWT is an accurate translation.

Yes. It is. In this case why is that so.

For example, when Jesus said that before Abraham was he was did that mean the same as Jehovah saying to Moses that I am?

I asked because alot of the time people try and confuse these two simple statements into thinking that Jesus and Jehovah is the same. Which is nonsense.

I I say I am that don't make me God and if I say I was that don't make me Jesus. That is pretty much the way people try and think outside of what is really being said.
 

Halcyon

Lord of the Badgers
angellous_evangellous said:
But we must add specific Gnostic qualities from later sources to make the Gnostic reading plausible.
You must understand the Gnostic viewpoint yes, but then that's the whole idea.
Paul tried to teach the early converts gradually, like they were children. If he had thrust the full Gnostic cosmology onto them they would have gone bananas, teach them to trust in Christ first, and once that is established move on. We can see this if his real letters are read in chronological order too, he gets more in depth, uses more obscure terminology etc. Read 1 Thessalonians, the first written, followed by Romans, one of the last written, and see the difference in style, terminology and depth.

angellous_evangellous said:
Then we can evaluate texts one at a time. I've seen more critical errors in identifying Gnosticism in the NT than I can mention. It seems to me like the older schools of finding Gnosticism in the NT are completely wrong.
Maybe they are, we only had the detracters to rely on before Nag Hammadi, you'd have to go into more detail about what you mean before i could really comment.

angellous_evangellous said:
I hate the Harvard school! I think that Elaine and Helmut are wrong, wrong, wrong. I may change my mind, but I'm pretty convinced at this point that the Gospel of Thomas is later.
Well, there you go, i found the argument quite convincing, but then i am biased. I guess we'll have to agree to disagree on this one. Unless you fancy started another debate specifially to discuss it?

angellous_evangellous said:
I agree that proto-Gnosticism was as well established as the proto-orthodox. I actually think that the proto-Gnostics used the infrastructure of the early churches to get its message out, and the converted churches imploded due to the new Gnostic disorganization. I don't think that the Gospel of Thomas is that early. There may be some Jesus tradition in Thomas, but it was more than likely redacted in.
I disagree, i think people would have noticed if it had been edited. I mean, some of the texts i have look whole to me, but scholars of Gnosticism have seen where two or three texts have been edited together into one, or where an early Jewish Gnostic text had been edited to make it Christian.

And i think the idea that Gnosticism was like some kind of leech that latched onto orthodoxy and used it to grow is entirely speculative, for all we know it could have been the onther way around, after all, the churches Paul founded were all excommunicated for holding heretical beliefs.
Could Gnosticism have been so powerful as to infect each of those churches? Or could they simply have started out with heretical beliefs to begin with?

I also think the churches were doing just fine with a mixture of beliefs within the congregation, a bit like the UU today, i reckon it was when certain individuals tried to impose their strictly orthodox belief onto churches that trouble began.

angellous_evangellous said:
But not Christian Gnosticism.
:confused: I'm not sure what your point is here. The fact that Gnosticism existed prior to Christ just adds to the plausibility that Jesus and Paul had been in contact with it.

angellous_evangellous said:
This would exempt the Gospel of John/Thomas conflict.
Not necessarily. John was written at the end of the first/beginning of the second century, if Thomas were written about the same time then one gospel could quite easily have been written to counter the other. And since John is the one that includes anti-Thomas comments, i have to believe that it was Thomas that was written first.

angellous_evangellous said:
Full-blown Gnosticism is a distinctly Christian phenomenon and the reflection of a long tradition of Christianity, using its writings its organization (which Gnosticism destroyed).
Oooo, talk about controversial statements :D . For a start Gnosticism was common in the second century, Irenaeus etc, so i don't know where you got the idea that Gnosticism was some late rewrite of a long established Christian system.
And also, Gnosticism had organisation, bishops, prophets etc, but they were roles full-filled by community, not by individual men.

angellous_evangellous said:
Many Gnostic tendacies are shared with most Christian "heretical" sects and other mystery religions or Greco-Roman groups:

1) Denial of the divinity of Christ
2) Denial of the bodily resurrection of Christ
3) Anti - or non-trinitarian tendacies
4) Emphasis on special knowledge
5) Lack of organization (=no bishop)
6) Belief that the human body is evil - attempt to escape from the body
1) Denial of the divinity of Jesus actually, Christ was alsways seen as being of God. Although there were variaitions in belief between sects.
2. Again, this varied between groups, some were docetic, others adoptionist (like myself, in a way) and others held views similar to the orthodox.
3. Actually there are a couple of Father, Son, Holy Spirit trinities in Gnosticism, one of them being pretty much the orthodox - Father (Monad), Son (logos), Holy Spirit (Sophia).
4. This has always been an error, its not knowledge or special knowledge - its Enlightenment, pretty much identical to the Buddhist view.
5. Different organisation, everyone was equal instead of a hierarchy.
6. Again this differed between groups, some were ascetic because they saw matter as evil. Others simply saw matter as a hinderance and not really important.

angellous_evangellous said:
Full-blown Christian Gnosticism
8) Highly analogous/metaphysical interpretative retelling of the OT stories that justify the complex cosmology (there are no quotations like this in the NT to my knowledge)
9) Highly analogous/metaphysical telling or retelling of the NT stories that justify Gnostic cosmology
8. No, you're right there are not, but that is not really surprising is it? Why would Irenaeus or his followers choose Gnostic books for the canon?

9. Later Gnostic texts do use some NT books as sources, whether they were considered orthodox canon at the time of the Gnostic's writing depends on the book, some like the Gospel of Truth were written before the canon had begun to take shape and others like the Gospel of Philip were written about a century before Nicene.

But since these books were written while the religion was still in a state of great flux, all gospels and works would have been seen as fair game for any group to use as sources, there was no "lets copy the orthodox texts and change them to become Gnostic" malarky going on.

angellous_evangellous said:
I think also (without much critical study) that the proto-Gnostic Jewish groups or otherwise fit only 1-6 without the cosmology.
Actually the cosmology found in Sethian texts is as rich and complex as that found in Valentianian texts. They simply used Seth instead of Jesus as the saviour figure.
 

doppelganger

Through the Looking Glass
Earthling said:
Okay. First of all, the word god or as you put it "God," shouldn't really enter into it.
I agree, it shouldn't. But since you entered your theology and the word "God" into it in your last response to me, I also used the word for the purpose of discussing the fact that this isn't about theology or "God" but about linguistics and translation.

Earthling said:
The same statement could have been made by you, by King David, by Jesus, by any god. In that sense of it, a god could be anything or anyone. Yet what it is and what you or I think it is is not necessarily what it is.
As I mentioned before, objectifying "God" or a "god" as a thing really doesn't mean anything to me, so I am not going to argue about what "God" is or isn't with you. Since neither of us has an objective frame of reference, there is no avenue by which such a communication could even occur between us.

Earthling said:
The original statement didn't really apply to you, though in a sense what he has become to you is what he has become to you.
Bingo. As far as who the statement applied to, I perceive that it applies to me. And yes, I appreciate that you are telling me you don't think it applies to you, and I wouldn't pretend to either want to or be able to change your experience in that regard.

Earthling said:
Bottom line, as you indicated is "what it means to you." Fair enough, but what it means to you isn't nesessarily accurate or based upon accurate knowledge.
There's no objective reference point by which to share an experience of "God," is there?

the doppleganger
 
A

angellous_evangellous

Guest
Halcyon said:
8. No, you're right there are not, but that is not really surprising is it? Why would Irenaeus or his followers choose Gnostic books for the canon?

9. Later Gnostic texts do use some NT books as sources, whether they were considered orthodox canon at the time of the Gnostic's writing depends on the book, some like the Gospel of Truth were written before the canon had begun to take shape and others like the Gospel of Philip were written about a century before Nicene.

I rest my case.

It was on these two points that I base my view. Everything else flows from those.
 

Earthling

David Henson
doppleganger said:
I agree, it shouldn't. But since you entered your theology and the word "God" into it in your last response to me, I also used the word for the purpose of discussing the fact that this isn't about theology or "God" but about linguistics and translation.


As I mentioned before, objectifying "God" or a "god" as a thing really doesn't mean anything to me, so I am not going to argue about what "God" is or isn't with you. Since neither of us has an objective frame of reference, there is no avenue by which such a communication could even occur between us.


Bingo. As far as who the statement applied to, I perceive that it applies to me. And yes, I appreciate that you are telling me you don't think it applies to you, and I wouldn't pretend to either want to or be able to change your experience in that regard.


There's no objective reference point by which to share an experience of "God," is there?

the doppleganger

I am not sure what you are saying, I mean I understand the statement, but it seems you are saying something which seems to me to differ somewhat from that statement.

When you say we have no objective reference point on what exactly the word god means, that doesn't make sense to me. We can as easily do so with the word god as any other. Evil, cross, gay, hell ... any word.

Here are my thoughts. God is a word. We can investigate and study it either from a linguistic or a traditional perspective. Our own experiences may differ, but I don't think that is important to what the word god itself means.
 

Halcyon

Lord of the Badgers
angellous_evangellous said:
I rest my case.

It was on these two points that I base my view. Everything else flows from those.
You what?

Not much of a case then is it? That the orthodox didn't choose any books that disagreed with their view of Christianity for their canon is a given.

And that later Gnostic texts used contemporary Christian texts when writing their own, what does that prove? Bearing in mind that Matthew and Luke both used Mark as a source, and John that could have used any or all of those three as his source, i can't see where you're going with this. :confused:
 
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