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What are the foundations of the NT?

2

2ndpillar

Well-Known Member
What are the foundations of the NT?

The real New Testament, meaning “new covenant”, is based on Jeremiah 31:31-34, in which “I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel and the house of Judah”. It is with regard to “I will put My Law within them” and “they shall be My people” (Jeremiah 31:33), which is a reiteration of Ezekiel 37:15-27), whereas the “stick” of “Israel” will be “joined together” with the “stick” of “Judah”, and they shall live on the “land that I gave to Jacob”, “and My servant David will be king over them”,…. and “they shall be My people”.

The current NT canon, used by the nations/Gentiles, was compiled by the Roman Catholic bishop of Alexandria, Athanasius, in the year 367 AD. The Roman church was institutionalized in the year 325 AD at the Council of Nicaea, which was convened by the “beast with two horns like a lamb”, Constantine, who was the 7th head of the beast (Revelation 17:10), who was to “deceive” “those who dwell on the earth” (Revelation 13:14). It contains the “good seed”, the “word of the kingdom”, and the “tare seed” the seed, cast by the “evil one”, in the same “field” (Matthew 13). Constantine was one of the heads of the beasts, whose authority comes from the “dragon” (Revelation 13:4), and the Roman church, one of the “daughters of Babylon” (Zechariah 2:7), sits on that beast with 7 heads (Revelation 17:3). One is supposed to “escape” from “the daughter of Babylon” (Zechariah 7:2), or to “come out of her” (Revelation 18:4), or “receive of her plagues”.
 
Maranguape

Maranguape

New Member
2ndpillar said:
What are the foundations of the NT?

The real New Testament, meaning “new covenant”, is based on Jeremiah 31:31-34, in which “I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel and the house of Judah”. It is with regard to “I will put My Law within them” and “they shall be My people” (Jeremiah 31:33), which is a reiteration of Ezekiel 37:15-27), whereas the “stick” of “Israel” will be “joined together” with the “stick” of “Judah”, and they shall live on the “land that I gave to Jacob”, “and My servant David will be king over them”,…. and “they shall be My people”.

The current NT canon, used by the nations/Gentiles, was compiled by the Roman Catholic bishop of Alexandria, Athanasius, in the year 367 AD. The Roman church was institutionalized in the year 325 AD at the Council of Nicaea, which was convened by the “beast with two horns like a lamb”, Constantine, who was the 7th head of the beast (Revelation 17:10), who was to “deceive” “those who dwell on the earth” (Revelation 13:14). It contains the “good seed”, the “word of the kingdom”, and the “tare seed” the seed, cast by the “evil one”, in the same “field” (Matthew 13). Constantine was one of the heads of the beasts, whose authority comes from the “dragon” (Revelation 13:4), and the Roman church, one of the “daughters of Babylon” (Zechariah 2:7), sits on that beast with 7 heads (Revelation 17:3). One is supposed to “escape” from “the daughter of Babylon” (Zechariah 7:2), or to “come out of her” (Revelation 18:4), or “receive of her plagues”.
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How could the NT be about the New Covenant with the House of Israel and the House of Judah according to Jeremiah 31:31? Since the NT is for the Gentiles, could it mean that they must convert to Judaism according to Halacha aka Jewish law? (Isaiah 56:1-8) Then, if the main point of the New Covenant is to set HaShem's Law within our own hearts, how could Christians be so alien to the Law? Now, regarding Israel and Judah living together in the whole Land of Israel with King David over them, this could not be literal because David has been dead for thousands of years and, according to himself in II Samuel 12:23, once dead, one would never return, we can't take this text as literal but rather to be interpreted metaphorically; I mean, that we will always have in our Government someone from Judah which BTW, HaShem promised that, for the sake of David, his Tribe would always remain as a Lamp in Jerusalem forever. (I Kings 11:36)
 
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2

2ndpillar

Well-Known Member
Maranguape said:
How could the NT be about the New Covenant with the House of Israel and the House of Judah according to Jeremiah 31:31? Since the NT is for the Gentiles, could it mean that they must convert to Judaism according to Halacha aka Jewish law? (Isaiah 56:1-8) Then, if the main point of the New Covenant is to set HaShem's Law within our own hearts, how could Christians be so alien to the Law? Now, regarding Israel and Judah living together in the whole Land of Israel with King David over them, this could not be literal because David has been dead for thousands of years and, according to himself in II Samuel 12:23, once dead, one would never return, we can't take this text as literal but rather to be interpreted metaphorically; I mean, that we will always have in our Government someone from Judah which BTW, HaShem promised that, for the sake of David, his Tribe would always remain as a Lamp in Jerusalem forever. (I Kings 11:36)
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As stated I Jeremiah 31:31, the "new covenant" is not about Gentiles, but about Judah and Israel. As for King David, it as with Daniel 12:13, "go your way to the end; then you will enter into rise again for your allotted portion at the end of the age". At the "end of the age", all the righteous will rise from the dead and reign over the world for a thousand years (Revelation 20:4). As for the sons of Israel, they must first "seek the LORD their God and David their king; and they will come trembling to the LORD and to His goodness in the last days" (Hosea 3:5).
 
Buddha Dharma

Buddha Dharma

Dharma Practitioner
2ndpillar said:
Constantine was one of the heads of the beasts, whose authority comes from the “dragon” (Revelation 13:4), and the Roman church, one of the “daughters of Babylon” (Zechariah 2:7)
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Now isn't this a bit of a stretch? Whoever wrote Revelation was writing of exactly the time it was produced in, and it makes ultimately more sense when read in that context. Revelation has no clear meaning when taken in a futuristic context, and has been reinterpreted more times than Pokemon has been remade. Revelation really only makes sense, in my opinion, when you read it as a work addressed to it's day- when the pagan Roman Empire was persecuting the Church.
 
2

2ndpillar

Well-Known Member
sunrise123 said:
The foundation to me is the statement of the two 'greatest commandments'.
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sunrise123 said:
The foundation to me is the statement of the two 'greatest commandments'.
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The foundation for "Christians" is apparently Hebrews 8:13, whereas "He has made the old obsolete", such as the OT, the law and the prophets, are "obsolete", which would include the testimony of Yeshua, which would be effectively nailed to a cross. To be a follower of Paul and his "Christian" church, and the whole of their NT, is to be numbered among the hypocrites, where there will be "weeping" and "gnashing of teeth". (Matthew 24:51). If you want to know the epitome of "hypocrisy", go to Romans 7:25.
 
Kenny

Kenny

Face to face with my Father
Premium Member
Maranguape said:
How could the NT be about the New Covenant with the House of Israel and the House of Judah according to Jeremiah 31:31?

Since the NT is for the Gentiles, could it mean that they must convert to Judaism according to Halacha aka Jewish law? (Isaiah 56:1-8)
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I wouldn't say it was just for the Gentiles but rather for both Gentiles and Jews. Since Gentiles are "born again", and Jesus, from the tribe of Judah, becomes our brother, one could say we are engrafted into the Jewish Olive tree.

Then, if the main point of the New Covenant is to set HaShem's Law within our own hearts, how could Christians be so alien to the Law?
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Not so much alien as outside of the Law for the New Covenant is the fulfilment of the Abrahamic Covenant which was before the Law which is what was spoken by Jerimiah.

I mean, that we will always have in our Government someone from Judah which BTW, HaShem promised that, for the sake of David, his Tribe would always remain as a Lamp in Jerusalem forever. (I Kings 11:36)
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Yes. As Christians we believe that Jesus is that fulfilment.
 
2

2ndpillar

Well-Known Member
KenS said:
I have no idea what you are trying to say.
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Jeremiah 31:31-34 has not occurred as of this date. The only part that has occurred so far, is that "I will restore the fortunes of Judah and Jerusalem" (Joel 3:1). The gathering of all the nations to the valley of judgment (Joel 3:2), and the ultimate joining of Judah and Israel, has not occurred.
 
2

2ndpillar

Well-Known Member
KenS said:
Not so much alien as outside of the Law for the New Covenant is the fulfilment of the Abrahamic Covenant which was before the Law which is what was spoken by Jerimiah.
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The covenant made with "Abraham", the father of nations, was a "sign" between him and God, and not a law, such as when Israel and Judah are joined (Ezekiel 37:15-28), whereas they will "walk in My ordinances, and keep My statutes, and observe them" . Even the Gentiles/nations will keep the statute of observing the "feast of Booths", or "no rain" will fall on them (Zechariah 14:17).
 
Kenny

Kenny

Face to face with my Father
Premium Member
2ndpillar said:
The covenant made with "Abraham", the father of nations, was a "sign" between him and God, and not a law, such as when Israel and Judah are joined (Ezekiel 37:15-28), whereas they will "walk in My ordinances, and keep My statutes, and observe them" . Even the Gentiles/nations will keep the statute of observing the "feast of Booths", or "no rain" will fall on them (Zechariah 14:17).
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I disagree in as much as through his covenant "all the nations of the earth shall be blessed." Gen 18:18 and 22:18

Abraham kept the law of the Spirit and life though faith and walked in the law of Love.
 
2

2ndpillar

Well-Known Member
Buddha Dharma said:
Now isn't this a bit of a stretch? Whoever wrote Revelation was writing of exactly the time it was produced in, and it makes ultimately more sense when read in that context. Revelation has no clear meaning when taken in a futuristic context, and has been reinterpreted more times than Pokemon has been remade. Revelation really only makes sense, in my opinion, when you read it as a work addressed to it's day- when the pagan Roman Empire was persecuting the Church.
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All the heads of the beasts persecuted Judah and Israel (Hosea 5:10-15), and had the habit of destroying Jerusalem, from Nebuchadnezzar thru Titus. Revelation was written during the period of the 6th head of the beast per Revelation 17:10. The period of the original 10 horns of the beast of Julius Caesar, which is the period of the original Augustus Caesars from Pompey burning Jerusalem to Titus burning Jerusalemm. Constantine reunited the Roman Empire by subduing "three kings" (Daniel 7:24), and was the 7th head of the beast. We are now in the era of the 8th head of the beast. They all "wear down the saints" (Daniel 7:25), which would not be the "Christian" church, which is a leader in doing such, as per the Inquisitions of the church. As the final 10 horns of the 8th head of the beast, they burn the "harlot"/Jews with "fire" (Revelation 17:16), such as is exampled by Hitler, and his ovens. The "Christian" church is only briefly noted in the OT. The best notation being Hosea 3, whereas the "Christian" church is the "adulteress" bought for the equivalence of 30 shekels of silver for "many days". The next best example is Zechariah 11:4-7, whereas the "Christian" church is the "flock doomed to slaughter".

If you think Revelation makes sense to you, who is the "beast with two horns like a lamb", and who are those two "horns like a lamb"?
 
2

2ndpillar

Well-Known Member
KenS said:
I disagree in as much as through his covenant "all the nations of the earth shall be blessed." Gen 18:18 and 22:18

Abraham kept the law of the Spirit and life though faith and walked in the law of Love.
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The survivors of the nations will be blessed after they are baptized in the fire of the day of the LORD, and confess "our fathers have inherited nothing but falsehood" (Jeremiah 16:19). In the meantime, 1/3 of mankind was killed by fire (Revelation 9:18), and those with the mark were made to drink from the wine of the wrath of God (Revelation 14:10).

Abraham obeyed my voice and kept my charge, my commandments, my statutes, and my laws.” Genesis 26:5
 
Buddha Dharma

Buddha Dharma

Dharma Practitioner
2ndpillar said:
If you think Revelation makes sense to you, who is the "beast with two horns like a lamb", and who are those two "horns like a lamb"?
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I don't assume it is futuristic, so I do not try to read into it. I know traditionally, Christianity believed it was about the author's time.
 
Rival

Rival

se Dex me saut.
Staff member
Premium Member
It makes much more sense if you just chop out the stuff after 'Lest I come and smite the earth with a curse.' in a Christian Bible. ;)
 
2

2ndpillar

Well-Known Member
Buddha Dharma said:
I don't assume it is futuristic, so I do not try to read into it. I know traditionally, Christianity believed it was about the author's time.
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Yeah, like you go to the "daughter of Babylon" for your daily bread. The OP was backed with quotes from Zechariah, Jeremiah, and Ezekiel. Joel 2:31-Joel 3:2 would also be a source showing the stories behind Revelation. Daniel 2:34-35 & 44, also reveal the players involved. Isaiah also fills in any blank spots. Revelation was written in the "author's time", but it also included "things which must shortly take place" (Revelation 1:1), and refers to past times.
 
2

2ndpillar

Well-Known Member
Rival said:
It makes much more sense if you just chop out the stuff after 'Lest I come and smite the earth with a curse.' in a Christian Bible. ;)
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A bigger "curse" is coming. We have been in the "tribulation", but the "great tribulation", she is a coming (Matthew 24).
 
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