Tumah
Veteran Member
All Hebrews scholars will agree that אל is also a definite article,
It's a preposition, a noun, or an adverb.
When you make a statement that is contradictory to established fact, you need to back it up. This is starting to become a theme with you.
The Hebrew for All-h can't be קל עליון because the first word אל is a noun (god), not a definite article and the second עליון is an adjective (high), not a noun. In All-h, or al-Ilah, the prefix is a definite article (the) and the word is a noun (god).ow
the Hebrew for Allah, would be 'אל עליון ' and this is from the
Ilah haj-Jabal means "god [of] the mountain". Heliogabalus (sun+mountain+nominative suffix) is also written Elagabalus (transliteration of god + mountain + nominative suffix).Greek 'ὁ ἠέλιον or ὁ ἠελίου ( The Helios ) , the predecessors of Allah
is Ilāh hag-Gabal yet it is written Heliogabalus .
What exactly is your point?
Gk. ὁ θεὸς (With God) ἄ θεος (Without God )
Hb. יְקוָה אֶל (With God ) יְקוָה לֹא ( Without God )
No, first of all your ignorance of Hebrew is showing. Both words are grammatically backwards. Hebrew is written right to left, so your preposition is on the wrong side of the noun. Second of all, אל doesn't mean "with" it means "to". Third of all "לא" doesn't mean "without" it means "no" or "don't".
The similarity you may be looking for between these two words is with a different pronunciation:
אַל (not אֶל) meaning "do not" as in 1 Sam. 1:6 "...אַל תתן את אמתך" - "don't place your maidservant..."
לֹא which can also mean "do not" as in Ex. 20:4 "...לֹא תשתחוה להם" - "don't bow to them"
' ὁ ' is identical in meaning to the particle 'אֶל' , meaning 'to, into, towards'
They may interchange in some languages, but they certainly do not interchange in Hebrew. You have three completely dissimilar words there.They are other prefix articles , one of which is εὖ (ev) which means 'to be' , in Persian it is 'ye' and 'heye' , Hebrew 'הָיָה' , variants are Eimi and Emi , another
is ἄγη (Agh) or אֲחִי
ἠμῐ́ - EMI 'עַמִּי' ( Ami )
εὖ - EB 'אֲבִי ' ( Abi ) and 'יְהוֹ (Yev )
All of these articles interchange .
עמי means "my nation". Its root is עמם.
אבי means "my father". Its root is אבה.
יהו is an affix to the beginning or end of a word and it's meaning is "G-d". The Tetragrammaton does have the root היה meaning 'being' in it. But that's not being demonstrated in this affix as its coming from the proper noun, not the root.
אבינעם is a name. It's a contraction of אבי נעם and it means "father of pleasantness". נעם by itself means pleasant.εὔνοος (Evnoos) 'well-disposed, kindly, friendly '
אֲבִינֹעַם (Abinoam) 'well-disposed, kindly, friendly'
They are identical in meaning, were-as the Lexicon
would say it means 'My father is kindly '
אביתר is a contraction of אבי יתר and it means "father of excess". יתר by itself means excess.εὐίατος ( Euiatos) 'easy to heal'
אֶבְיָתָר (Abiather) ' easy to heal '
אחיטוב is a contraction of אחי טוב and it means "brother of good". טוב by itself means good.ἀγαθός ( Agathos) 'goodly '
'אֲחִיטוּב' (Ahitub ) ' goodly '
This appears to be a random grouping of letters and words that lack coherency when placed together.'εὖ'= Yeu
εὖ-σέβω ' pious '
שׁוּע יְהוֹ ( ev shev·ä)
The name Joshua, people are pronouncing this as if
it were written Yehooeh (יְהֹעעה )
I think you may be confused about when they're attempting to pronounce the Tetragrammaton.
The Semitic ו became the Greek F which is called Digamma. Not to be confused with English "F" which is equivalent to the Greek Φ. The Greek Digamma is pronounced like the English "W".or Yahshua , in fact
the Hebraic letter וּ became the letter F and ע became
O and עע became W or ω (O Mega) ,
It be like pronouncing Fire as Wire, or Feel as Weel.
A - Alef - Alpha - Α
B - Bet - Beta - Β
C - Gimel - Gamma - Γ
D - Dalet - Delta - Δ
E - He - Epsilon - Ε
F - Vav - Digamma - Ϝ
The Phoenician ע became the Greek O. However, that's only the form of the letter not the pronunciation as the ע is a voiced pharyngeal fricative, while the Greek O is pronounced like a long 'o'.
Where are people getting W from , W is a double-vowel
The sound that the W makes today is the equivalent of the Hebrew ו.
According to what you yourself just wrote a few lines ago, פרעה should be properly transliterated as Φροε.in fact the letter is literally called 'double o ' ( double Ayin )
as in עע = W = ω
פרעה Φαραω (Pharoo )
Recognizing that there are differences between Semitic and Hellenic languages is your first step to greatness.
No, the the Phoenician Qoph became a Ϙ in Greek, not a Φ. It was later dropped in favor of the similar sounding K.Since Φαραω begins with Φ that derives from the Hebraic letter Qoph,
then it is also written קָרעה ( Ka rah ) from קָרַח 'to make bald '
At this point, I wonder if you're actually even able to recognizing Hebrew letters as you seem to be making a mistake that can only happen if you're reading a transliteration.
These are two different words. They are pronounced Qar'a (the ' representing the ʕ -qarʕah) and Qaraḥ (note the dot under the h), respectively. The first two letters are the same, but the remaining letters are different. Bear in mind root words have three letters. So the roots are qrʕ and qrḥ respectively.
No, the Hebrew פרע doesn't have a Greek root, it has a Hebrew root: פרע. The fact that they both have an /r/ in them is not sufficient to attribute a relationship between them.to prove that point, the Hebraic word for 'to have long hair' is 'פֶּרַע' and the root word is 'κάρα meaning Head
It may be vital to point out that Pharaoh is not a Hebrew word. So if you were trying to demonstrate some linkage between the Egyptian Pharaoh and the Hebrew paraʕ, you may run into some difficulty.
גבח means the front side of the head. Its opposed to קרח, the back side of the head. Contextually it means that this area of the head was revealed (by removal or lack of hair).and גִּבֵּחַ (ghiba ) means 'bald forehead'
כיפה comes from the root כפף meaning to turn over. The modern word for the Jewish head covering כיפה, comes from the older word for dome: כיפה, which resembles an overturned bowl.and Hebrews wear a כִּיפָּה ( Kippa ) but Latins wear a 'Petasi' or a Pileus
You seem to again be saying that because this word and the Latin/Greek words both have a letter P, they should be related.
I also wonder again if you are able to recognize Hebrew letters as you've just switched from talking about the Hebrew ק to the Hebrew כ. Although in English they're often both transliterated as a K, they're actually different letters.
This is not sufficient to demonstrate a relationship between the Semtic Q and the Greek PH. Using the same logic you could say (פרזי) PHRIZI > PHINI > Phoenician. It's also unclear what you're even saying as the Kennites and Kenezites are two different tribes.(קֵינִי) QINI > PHINI 'φοίνι '
(קְנִזִּי ) QINIZ > PHINIC 'φοίνικ ' Phoenicians '
You're argument seems to be that the (Egyptian) Pharaoh can also be pronounced Karaoh, because the Hebrew word for excessive hair Paraʕ which happens to be located on the head, is similar to the Greek word Kara which actually means head. And this will explain how the Greek Phoinikes actually comes from the Semitic Keni.
Do you see the problem? The Egyptian word aside, you're using what you're claiming is a change from the Hebrew P to the Greek K, in order to explain a change from the Hebrew K to the Greek PH. And you're doing so by creating a relationship through one letter in common between words in all these cases.
There are people that study these things professionally. I think its best you left it to them.
Last edited: