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The Bible declares that Jesus is God

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djhwoodwerks

Well-Known Member
kjw47 said:
Yes--GIVEN to him because it was not his ever before that point. Given to him by the one he teaches is greater than him.
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Go ahead, keep denying Jesus, it's your eternity!

Why do you focus on "GIVEN" to Him instead of He "HAS" it? I never once said it wasn't "GIVEN" to Him, that does not matter, not one bit, that it was "GIVEN" to Him. What matters is, "HE HAS ALL AUTHORITY" ALLLLLLLL AUTHORITY, no one else has any, He HAS IT ALLLLLLL!!!!
 
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djhwoodwerks

Well-Known Member
kjw47 said:
thousands of congregations in a single religion.
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WRONG!! Jesus has ONE "congregation".

Acts 20:28 (ESV Strong's) 28 Pay careful attention to yourselves and to all the flock, in which the Holy Spirit has made you overseers, to care for the church of God, which he obtained with his own blood.

It says "CHURCH" not churches!

Galatians 1:13 (ESV Strong's) 13 For you have heard of my former life in Judaism, how I persecuted the church of God violently and tried to destroy it.

It says "CHURCH" not churches!
 
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djhwoodwerks

Well-Known Member
kjw47 said:
There is a lot of symbolism, and hidden meanings all over the bible.
Blood has always been a sacred thing to God. He demanded blood sacrafice for sins in the ot. To be poured out on the ground. It took Jesus shed blood to atone for sin.

Nt- Abstain from blood---
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Then why didn't God's Son teach to abstain from blood? Why did JESUS say, "NOTHING from without a man can defile him"? Isn't that going against what God said?
 
Brickjectivity

Brickjectivity

wind and rain touch not this brain
Staff member
Premium Member
Rick B said:
The prologue of John, i.e 1-18, is about Jesus Christ. Revelation 19 is about Jesus Christ. The context of each is plain and clear with the support of all scholarship of which I am aware. If you have respected scholars which have another view I would be happy to review their expository thoughts.
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You've entirely removed Jesus from the prologue and called it scholarship. You don't want John to call him light. That isn't the presupposition you are supporting. It doesn't appear to equate to the declaration you want.

Rick B said:
And apparently you do not grasp the concept of Tota Scriptura in utilizing all of Scripture to use as a foundation for formulating a syllogism. It's not mixing but collating.
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In other words when one verse doesn't declare Jesus to be God in the prologue of John substitute verses from Revelation that are about God?
 
Rick B

Rick B

Active Member
Premium Member
Brickjectivity said:
You've entirely removed Jesus from the prologue and called it scholarship. You don't want John to call him light. That isn't the presupposition you are supporting. It doesn't appear to equate to the declaration you want.

In other words when one verse doesn't declare Jesus to be God in the prologue of John substitute verses from Revelation that are about God?
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The thesis of this thread is The Bible Declares that Jesus is God.
 
kjw47

kjw47

Well-Known Member
Rick B said:
How do you justify your "Double-Standard" in accusing Trinitarians of mistranslating the Bible when the NWT adds the word "a" in their translation of John 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was "a" god. The Greek reads:

Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος, καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν, καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος.
En archē ēn ho Lógos, kaì ho Lógos ēn pròs tòn Theón, kaì Theòs ēn ho Lógos.
In beginning was the Word, and the Word was with the God, and God was the Word.

The NASB reads: In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. There is no difference in meaning whatsoever in stating "God was the Word" or "The Word was God". Therefore in order for JW's to be able to promote their Arian-antitrinitarianism they must create a mistranslation of the Bible which denies the Deity of Christ in this verse by adding to God's Word in a way which "contradicts" His truth. Both P66 and P75 in English read: In beginning was the Word, and the Word was with the God, and God was the Word.

P66 dates of c.175 or c.125-150 A.D. (John 1:1-6:11, 6:35b-14:26,29-30; 15:2-26; 16:2-4; 16:6-7; 16:10-20:20; 20:22-23; 20:25-21:9; 21:12,17 (fragments of John 19:16). John 1:1 reads: Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος, καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν, καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος.

P75 175-200 A.D., or 175-225 A.D. (most of Luke and John. John 1:1-11:45; 11:48-57; 12:3-13:1; 13:8-9; 14:8-15; part of 14:16; 14:17-29; 15:7-8). John 1:1 reads: Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος, καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν, καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος.

These manuscripts predate your erroneous accusation of mistranslation during the early era of the Roman Catholic Church. "When the Western half of the Roman Empire collapsed in 476, the popes took on the title that had previously belonged to the Roman emperors—Pontifex Maximus. Pope Gregory I, ruling from 590–604, is usually considered the first bishop to truly wield papal authority."
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A, an or the was never written in the greek language, they were spoken however. One had to know where they belonged. And they are written in the English language.

There is a huge difference--When the NT speaks of the true living God--HO preceded the greek word-THEOS--it was not in the last line of John 1:1--it was in the second line. It did not call the word--Ho Theos) The God---plain Theos = god( small g)
 
kjw47

kjw47

Well-Known Member
djhwoodwerks said:
They may encourage daily Bible reading, but NOT without reading the wt magazine first and foremost!



Boy, you are thick! They do not teach "every utterance from God", if they did, they wouldn't have to keep making "CORRECTION"!!!!!!
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Error teachings always get in. It started after Jesus died. Correction is a must by the true followers. The Pharisees in Jesus day had many error teachings in place--they outright refused to make correction because they made the major error of thinking they stood strong.
By one ,making correction in front of all the haughty hearts that laugh at it--proves 100% truth is what they seek and love.
 
kjw47

kjw47

Well-Known Member
djhwoodwerks said:
Go ahead, keep denying Jesus, it's your eternity!

Why do you focus on "GIVEN" to Him instead of He "HAS" it? I never once said it wasn't "GIVEN" to Him, that does not matter, not one bit, that it was "GIVEN" to Him. What matters is, "HE HAS ALL AUTHORITY" ALLLLLLLL AUTHORITY, no one else has any, He HAS IT ALLLLLLL!!!!
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The one greater than him--is the only power in existence. that one being( the true living God) shares with his son.
 
kjw47

kjw47

Well-Known Member
djhwoodwerks said:
WRONG!! Jesus has ONE "congregation".

Acts 20:28 (ESV Strong's) 28 Pay careful attention to yourselves and to all the flock, in which the Holy Spirit has made you overseers, to care for the church of God, which he obtained with his own blood.

It says "CHURCH" not churches!

Galatians 1:13 (ESV Strong's) 13 For you have heard of my former life in Judaism, how I persecuted the church of God violently and tried to destroy it.

It says "CHURCH" not churches!
Click to expand...


The word Church--DOES NOT BELONG IN THE BIBLE. that word did not exist when the bible was written. A deceiving translated word--congregation is the ONLY real word translated from the greek word--NOT CHURCH. So the greek schoalrs who back trinity translations are LYING. They know 100% trinity translations are filled with errors to mislead.
 
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djhwoodwerks

Well-Known Member
kjw47 said:
Error teachings always get in. It started after Jesus died. Correction is a must by the true followers. The Pharisees in Jesus day had many error teachings in place--they outright refused to make correction because they made the major error of thinking they stood strong.
By one ,making correction in front of all the haughty hearts that laugh at it--proves 100% truth is what they seek and love.
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If one has to make correction for "uttering" what someone else told them, then they DIDN'T say what they were told!
 
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djhwoodwerks

Well-Known Member
kjw47 said:
By one ,making correction in front of all the haughty hearts that laugh at it--proves 100% truth is what they seek and love.
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If one was actually speaking the utterances of God, they wouldn't have to make correction! It's the ones who, "run ahead" of God, or the ones teaching only their opinion that need to make correction.

If one needs to make correction, they weren't listening to God in the first place, so they were teaching their opinion.
 
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djhwoodwerks

Well-Known Member
kjw47 said:
The one greater than him--is the only power in existence. that one being( the true living God) shares with his son.
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Wrong again!

Matthew 28:18 (ESV Strong's) 18 And Jesus came and said to them, “All authority in heaven and on earth has been given to me.

Jesus didn't say, 'all authority is "shared" with me"!

If I give you ALL my money, does that mean I still have some and I'm just "sharing" with you?
 
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djhwoodwerks

Well-Known Member
kjw47 said:
The word Church--DOES NOT BELONG IN THE BIBLE. that word did not exist when the bible was written. A deceiving translated word--congregation is the ONLY real word translated from the greek word--NOT CHURCH. So the greek schoalrs who back trinity translations are LYING. They know 100% trinity translations are filled with errors to mislead.
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LMBO!!! How thick are you?

Just substitute your word "congregation" for the word church! "THE" congregation of God, not the "congregations" of God.

"If" what you're saying is true, then all the 1,000s "congregations" of God are perfect, except the 7 mentioned in Revelation? LOL!!
 
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djhwoodwerks

Well-Known Member
kjw47 said:
The word Church--DOES NOT BELONG IN THE BIBLE. that word did not exist when the bible was written. A deceiving translated word--congregation is the ONLY real word translated from the greek word--NOT CHURCH. So the greek schoalrs who back trinity translations are LYING. They know 100% trinity translations are filled with errors to mislead.
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"Congregation" DOES NOT BELONG IN THE BIBLE either! I'm pretty sure Paul never used either words. All church and congregation means is, "a gathering". So it doesn't matter what you call it, church, congregation, gathering, assembly, community or whatever.

Definition of congregation
  1. 1a : an assembly of persons : gathering; especially : an assembly of persons met for worship and religious instructionb : a religious community: such as (1) : an organized body of believers in a particular locality The pastor delivered a lengthy sermon to the congregation. (2) : a Roman Catholic religious institute with only simple vows a congregation of nuns (3) : a group of monasteries forming an independent subdivision of an order

  2. 2 : the act or an instance of congregating or bringing together : the state of being congregated
Why are you so worked up about "Trinity"? What has church or congregation to do with the Trinity?​


kjw47 said:
A deceiving translated word--congregation is the ONLY real word translated from the greek word--NOT CHURCH.
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So Strongs is wrong, and your unlearned, self appointed, uninspired, still roving, always having to correct themselves 'slave' is right?

g1577. ἐκκλησία ekklēsia; from a compound of 1537 and a derivative of 2564; a calling out, i.e. (concretely) a popular meeting, especially a religious congregation (Jewish synagogue, or Christian community of members on earth or saints in heaven or both): — assembly, church.
 
Brickjectivity

Brickjectivity

wind and rain touch not this brain
Staff member
Premium Member
Rick B said:
Can't produce any back-up to support your misunderstanding of the prologue of John?
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John says Jesus is the light which comes from the word, but you would have Jesus be the word. I don't even aim to prove anything except that it doesn't say Jesus is God but that he is the light not the word. So it doesn't declare Jesus is God, because a declaration would be a simple straightforward announcement of it.
 
Rick B

Rick B

Active Member
Premium Member
Brickjectivity said:
John says Jesus is the light which comes from the word, but you would have Jesus be the word. I don't even aim to prove anything except that it doesn't say Jesus is God but that he is the light not the word. So it doesn't declare Jesus is God, because a declaration would be a simple straightforward announcement of it.
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You are just repeating your opinion. I already know your lack of exposition or exegesis of John 1:1-18. So I'll repeat my request and see if you will respond this time.

Can you produce any respected Biblical scholarship that agrees with your opinion that Jesus is only the light and someone else is the Word and disagrees with my assertion that John is declaring Jesus being the Word and that same Word is God?
 
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