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The Bible declares that Jesus is God

kjw47

Well-Known Member
Thank you KJW, I’m sure if Christendom taught those things “Correction had to be made”. However I specifically asked who in Christendom taught your Governing Board things that needed correction. We wouldn’t want anyone who calls themselves a “Jehovah’s” Witness to be making a false witness against Christianity. That would bring “reproach upon Jehovah’s Name” wouldn’t it?

So here are the questions again. Pretend we're at a bible study. I’ve just handed you these questions, confident that after studying both sides for 59 years you can provide Rick, djwoodworks and myself with detailed, specific, truthful answers: :)

(1) Can you tell us which “mistranslated” bible led your Organization into believing 1914 was to be Armageddon? Was it the King James Version, The Emphasized Bible, Gideon’s or some other?

(2) Which Christian church deceived your Organization into believing Jesus Christ visited them invisibly in 1918, or that the ancient worthies would be resurrected in 1925?

(3) Which “uncorrected” manuscript told your Governing Board there were only a few months before Armageddon in 1940?

(4) Which Christian leader planted the whole notion of 1975 into the minds of your Governing Board?

(5) The Governing Board claims they are the sole "channel" of communication with God today. Can you explain the methods "Christendom" used to jump between God and His chosen channel?

(6) Can you give examples from scripture? Perhaps cases where Moses or Elijah received communication, but the message was confused because local clergy jumped in?

(7) Can you explain who in Christendom was doing this? Was it the Pope? The President? How did they determine it was "Christendom", and not Buddhists, Hindus or Muslims?

(8) Can you support your answer with peered reviewed articles, white papers, or (if you must) specific quotes from Watchtower literature?​

Thank you!



Catholicism translators added false council teachings with little errors. The bible was kept in Latin for at least 1000 years after the councils were held--No one was allowed to read it for themselves except some clergy. No one had a clue as to what was truth at that point==When they allowed translating so others could read the bible, all originals were long gone. Catholicism translating remained.
Proof the religion that came out of Rome was not the religion Jesus began.
Jesus teaches--Man does not live by bread alone, but by every utterance from God--Obviously God wants us to read the bible for ourselves.--They were far removed from God-- Once others could read--Ran, even though it was Catholicism translating. Many things they do the opposite. Like the ot--condemns the usage of statues, icons, graven images. Catholicism allowed pagan practices to become apart of Christmas and Easter--its in the encyclopedias. The JW,s don't teach it to be jerks--its reality.
 

Rick B

Active Member
Premium Member
I think if the Messiah the Jews were expecting was going to be God Himself, then He would have told his chosen people. This whole notion of worshippin g men as Gods comes from Greco-Roman World. They simply hijacked the message of Jesus pbuh, taking the title 'son of God' and replaced their own 'Sun of God' with it. We know this because amongst other things, Emperor Constantine in 321 A.D. decreed “the day of the sun” as a day of rest. He took the Jewish Sabbath and replaced it with Sun 'worship' Day.

We are to believe Palestine was under a hostile invading force that crushed any dissent, and Jesus pbuh was fine with that, telling his followers,

Mark 12:17 "And Jesus answering said unto them, Render to Caesar the things that are Caesar's, and to God the things that are God's." Did Jesus pbuh say that or is it a later insertion?

Either way, sorry but it makes no sense worshipping a man who prayed to God, asked God why he had been forsaken, and told the people he was going to his God and their God. As page after page in this thread has shown, higher Christology is really only found in John and even there you find passages showing Jesus pbuh was far from divine. If you sincerely love the God of Abraham pbuh, then you should follow the Torah as Jesus pbuh commanded. Or keep studying and seek out who the Prophet to come after him was. Recall Jesus pbuh said,

12 “I have yet many things to tell you, but you cannot bear them now.13 But when the Spirit of truth comes, He will guide you into all truth. For He will not speak on His own authority. But He will speak whatever He hears, and He will tell you things that are to come. 14 He will glorify Me, for He will receive from Me and will declare it to you. 15 All that the Father has is Mine. Therefore I said that He will take what is Mine and will declare it to you. John 16:12-15

I originally was not going to reply to your post because there were so many errors. But as time went by I just couldn't allow you to continue to present these unfactual statements especially if you actually believe them.

You state: "I think if the Messiah the Jews were expecting was going to be God Himself, then He would have told his chosen people."

He did:
John 5:16 For this reason the Jews were persecuting Jesus, because He was doing these things on the Sabbath. 17 But He answered them, “My Father is working until now, and I Myself am working.” 18 For this reason therefore the Jews were seeking all the more to kill Him, because He not only was breaking the Sabbath, but also was calling God His own Father, making Himself equal with God.

John 10:24 The Jews then gathered around Him, and were saying to Him, “How long will You keep us in suspense? If You are [c]the Christ, tell us plainly.” 25 Jesus answered them, “I told you, and you do not believe; the works that I do in My Father’s name, these testify of Me. 26 But you do not believe because you are not of My sheep. 27 My sheep hear My voice, and I know them, and they follow Me; 28 and I give eternal life to them, and they will never perish; and no one will snatch them out of My hand. 29 [d]My Father, who has given them to Me, is greater than all; and no one is able to snatch them out of the Father’s hand. 30 I and the Father are [e]one.”

31 The Jews picked up stones again to stone Him. 32 Jesus answered them, “I showed you many good works from the Father; for which of them are you stoning Me?” 33 The Jews answered Him, “For a good work we do not stone You, but for blasphemy; and because You, being a man, make Yourself out to be God.”

You state: "This whole notion of worshipping men as Gods comes from Greco-Roman World. We know this because amongst other things, Emperor Constantine in 321 A.D. decreed “the day of the sun” as a day of rest. He took the Jewish Sabbath and replaced it with Sun 'worship' Day.

Worshipping men as gods long predates the Greco-Roman World. Consider ancient Egypt ca 2600 BC.

You state:They simply hijacked the message of Jesus pbuh, taking the title 'son of God' and replaced their own 'Sun of God' with it.

This is simply a false analogy ploy with no historical basis. Just because the phrases sound alike doesn't make the claim true. There was, of course Sun worship (not sun of god worship) which may have begun with Nimrod ca 1050 BC. See also http://www.reviewofreligions.org/2306/ by Fazal Ahmad - UK

You state: We know this because amongst other things, Emperor Constantine in 321 A.D. decreed “the day of the sun” as a day of rest. He took the Jewish Sabbath and replaced it with Sun 'worship' Day.

The true change of the Jewish Sabbath from the seventh day (Saturday on the current calendar) to the first day (Sunday on the current calendar) was due to the Apostolic and primitive church examples in the Acts of the Apostles and the epistles celebrating the resurrection of Jesus Christ on that day. The sixth day was a rest from work day celebrating God's finishing of the work of creation. The first day is the celebration of Christ's finishing of His work of the New Creation. Not a material but a Spiritual one of being "in Him" by grace through faith in His penal, substitutionary, representative - death, burial, and resurrection for His sheep.

Acts 20:7 On the first day of the week, when we were gathered together to break bread, Paul began talking to them, intending to leave the next day, and he prolonged his message until midnight.

1 Corinthians 16:1 Now concerning the collection for the saints, as I directed the churches of Galatia, so do you also. 2 On the first day of every week each one of you is to put aside and save, as he may prosper, so that no collections be made when I come.

You state: Mark 12:17 "And Jesus answering said unto them, Render to Caesar the things that are Caesar's, and to God the things that are God's." Did Jesus pbuh say that or is it a later insertion?

We are to submit to the governing authorities. Unless they force one to disobey God's word. The we obey God rather than man. Even if we receive temporal punishment.

When Jesus, the eternal Son of God, took upon Himself sinless humanity He also took on the form of a servant, giving up His heavenly glory (Philippians 2:5-11). As the God-man, He had to learn obedience (Hebrews 5:8) to His Father as He was tempted by Satan, accused falsely by men, rejected by His people, and eventually crucified. His praying to His heavenly Father was to ask for power (John 11:41-42) and wisdom (Mark 1:35, 6:46). His praying showed His dependence upon His Father in His humanity to carry out His Father's plan of redemption, as evidenced in Christ's high priestly prayer in John 17. His praying demonstrated that He ultimately submitted to His Father's will, which was to go to the cross and pay the penalty (death) for our breaking God's law (Matthew 26:31-46). Of course, He rose bodily from the grave, winning forgiveness and eternal life for those who repent of sin and believe in Him as the Savior.

There is no problem with God the Son praying or talking to God the Father. As mentioned, they had an eternal relationship before Christ became a man. This relationship is depicted in the Gospels so we can see how the Son of God in His humanity carried out His Father's will, and in doing so, purchased redemption for His children (John 6:38). Christ’s continual submission to His heavenly Father was empowered and kept focused through His prayer life. Christ’s example of prayer is ours to follow.

Jesus Christ was no less God on earth when praying to His Father in heaven. He was depicting how even in sinless humanity it is necessary to have a vital prayer life in order to do His Father’s will. Jesus' praying to the Father was a demonstration of His relationship within the Trinity and an example for us that we must rely on God through prayer for the strength and wisdom we need. Since Christ, as the God-man, needed to have a vibrant prayer life, so should the follower of Christ today.
If Jesus was God, how could He pray to God? Was Jesus praying to Himself?

Finally, you state:Or keep studying and seek out who the Prophet to come after him was. Recall Jesus pbuh said (John 15:12-16 above)

I assume here that you are saying that Muhammad is the "Spirit of truth" Jesus was referring to. This same Spirit that "was moving over the surface of the waters" at creation? And while Christians give evidence for the trinity in Isaiah 48:16 “Come near to Me, listen to this: From the first I have not spoken in secret, From the time it took place, I was there. And now the Lord God has sent Me, and His Spirit.” This Spirit is Muhammad? Or these words of Jesus quoting the prophet Isaiah?: “The Spirit of the Lord is upon Me, Because He anointed Me to preach the gospel to the poor. He has sent Me to proclaim release to the captives, And recovery of sight to the blind, To set free those who are oppressed, To proclaim the favorable year of the Lord.” Luke 4:18-19 The Spirit of the Lord upon Jesus was Muhammad whom He was to send?
 

Rick B

Active Member
Premium Member
Actually the FACTS of Israelite history proves God is a single being God. Its there, I shared scriptures with you from Jesus and Paul that contradict your teachers. They say the same thing in your translation.

Actually your reply to my post is irrelevant. A non-response.

Within the one Being that is God, there exists eternally three co-equal and co-eternal Persons, namely the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit.
 

Oeste

Well-Known Member
Catholicism translators added false council teachings with little errors. The bible was kept in Latin for at least 1000 years after the councils were held--No one was allowed to read it for themselves except some clergy.

I need you to focus on what I'm asking so I'm going to break this into small chunks by starting here...

The Catholics say you can't read or translate without their clergy, and your Organization says you can't understand what you read in the bible without your Governing Board.

Can you explain the difference to us?
 

djhwoodwerks

Well-Known Member
Read the Job account--Satan killed all of Jobs children by controlling the weather. And other things--That is godlike power. He has had 99% mislead for the majority of mankinds history--that is Power. 98% do not even know it is him they serve. Sin= worship to satan.
Fact- satans #1 tool in mortal history= From generation to generation, from parent to child--false god worship, pagan practices off the table of demons( 1Cor 10:21) handed down--all through mortal history. Things that happened centuries ago so that few have a clue.

Why do you keep quoting the OLD Testament! That was BEFORE Jesus!

NEW Testament,

Matthew 28:18 (ESV Strong's) 18 And Jesus came and said to them, “All authority in heaven and on earth has been given to me.

Authority: g1849. ἐξουσία exousia - look it up!!
 

djhwoodwerks

Well-Known Member
Jesus speaks to 7 congregations in revelation--proving he is with--one religion on this earth. He leads it. Ephesians 5:23-1Cor 1:10)-- Truth is only revealed through the real teachers in Jesus' one religion. One cannot accomplish this-John 4:22-24- unless they know truth.
One religion= OT
One religion- NT.
No division.

You need to rethink your comment!

Jesus does speak to 7 churches/congregations in Revelation, how does that prove it is ONE religion? If that's true, then you don't belong to the true church, because there are 1,000s of witness congregations, not just 7, correct?
 

djhwoodwerks

Well-Known Member
Jesus wasn't the savior until he completed his earthly task living a sinless existence,


He still had to complete the task of living a sinless existence or he would not have been our savior.

Again, what the "Bible really teaches" is,

Luke 2:11 (ESV Strong's) 11 For unto you is born this day in the city of David a Savior, who is Christ the Lord.

Jesus was BORN a Savior, He didn't become one!
 

djhwoodwerks

Well-Known Member
Actually the FACTS of Israelite history proves God is a single being God. Its there, I shared scriptures with you from Jesus and Paul that contradict your teachers. They say the same thing in your translation.

What about these scriptures that contradict your teachers,

Mark 7:14-15 (ESV Strong's) 14 And he called the people to him again and said to them, “Hear me, all of you, and understand: 15 There is nothing outside a person that by going into him can defile him, but the things that come out of a person are what defile him.”

Mark 7:18-19 (ESV Strong's) 18 And he said to them, “Then are you also without understanding? Do you not see that whatever goes into a person from outside cannot defile him, 19 since it enters not his heart but his stomach, and is expelled?” (Thus he declared all foods clean.)

Your 'slave' gets it's blood doctrine from Peter, in ONE book of the New Testament, and something Jesus NEVER mentioned! Why did Jesus say, NOTHING a man eats will defile him if He knew we weren't to consume blood? Was He setting us up?
 

kjw47

Well-Known Member
Actually your reply to my post is irrelevant. A non-response.

Within the one Being that is God, there exists eternally three co-equal and co-eternal Persons, namely the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit.


So says the religion that came out of Rome over 200 years after Jesus was on earth. That was not the religion he started. Their translating is responsible for every trinity translation--filled with errors and contradictions.
Proof they were not Jesus'---- Jesus taught---Man does not live by bread alone but by every utterance from God----Jesus wants his followers to read the bible--learn it and apply it.
For at least 1000 years after the councils were held--no one was allowed to read the bible except upper clergy.--the exact opposite of The real Jesus.
Jesus attended--synagogues and temples of Judaism. They taught, served and worshipped a single being God named-YHVH(Jehovah)--the one Jesus teaches is his God--John 20:17, Rev 3:12--
 

kjw47

Well-Known Member
I need you to focus on what I'm asking so I'm going to break this into small chunks by starting here...

The Catholics say you can't read or translate without their clergy, and your Organization says you can't understand what you read in the bible without your Governing Board.

Can you explain the difference to us?



One is lead by Jesus, one is not. We all must make the choice.
The JW teachers encourage all to read the bible daily. They teach--every utterance from God.
Catholicism cannot even understand simple bible milk---It teaches--Do not call any man on earth--FATHER( as a spiritual teacher) God is the holy Father--not the Pope.
Statues,icons,graven images forbidden to use in a place of worship. Yet those who listen to catholicism, bow to a graven image above every pulpit. kiss a little icon metal cross.
 

kjw47

Well-Known Member
Why do you keep quoting the OLD Testament! That was BEFORE Jesus!

NEW Testament,

Matthew 28:18 (ESV Strong's) 18 And Jesus came and said to them, “All authority in heaven and on earth has been given to me.

Authority: g1849. ἐξουσία exousia - look it up!!


Yes--GIVEN to him because it was not his ever before that point. Given to him by the one he teaches is greater than him.
 

kjw47

Well-Known Member
You need to rethink your comment!

Jesus does speak to 7 churches/congregations in Revelation, how does that prove it is ONE religion? If that's true, then you don't belong to the true church, because there are 1,000s of witness congregations, not just 7, correct?


thousands of congregations in a single religion. Every JW worldwide gets the same spiritual feedings weekly.
The word Church( mistranslation) did not exist when the books of the bible were written. There are many errors in trinity translations.
 

kjw47

Well-Known Member
Again, what the "Bible really teaches" is,

Luke 2:11 (ESV Strong's) 11 For unto you is born this day in the city of David a Savior, who is Christ the Lord.

Jesus was BORN a Savior, He didn't become one!


Boy you are thick. If he failed and he could have he wouldn't be savior.
 

kjw47

Well-Known Member
My closet is "organized", yet I don't call it an "organization".

Your, whatever you call it, is an "organization", a money making 'company'. Just like Christendom!


Jw,s work on donation--Christendom forces donations, by demanding a tithe, or passing a plate.
 

kjw47

Well-Known Member
What about these scriptures that contradict your teachers,

Mark 7:14-15 (ESV Strong's) 14 And he called the people to him again and said to them, “Hear me, all of you, and understand: 15 There is nothing outside a person that by going into him can defile him, but the things that come out of a person are what defile him.”

Mark 7:18-19 (ESV Strong's) 18 And he said to them, “Then are you also without understanding? Do you not see that whatever goes into a person from outside cannot defile him, 19 since it enters not his heart but his stomach, and is expelled?” (Thus he declared all foods clean.)

Your 'slave' gets it's blood doctrine from Peter, in ONE book of the New Testament, and something Jesus NEVER mentioned! Why did Jesus say, NOTHING a man eats will defile him if He knew we weren't to consume blood? Was He setting us up?


There is a lot of symbolism, and hidden meanings all over the bible.
Blood has always been a sacred thing to God. He demanded blood sacrafice for sins in the ot. To be poured out on the ground. It took Jesus shed blood to atone for sin.

Nt- Abstain from blood---
 

Rick B

Active Member
Premium Member
So says the religion that came out of Rome over 200 years after Jesus was on earth. That was not the religion he started. Their translating is responsible for every trinity translation--filled with errors and contradictions.
Proof they were not Jesus'---- Jesus taught---Man does not live by bread alone but by every utterance from God----Jesus wants his followers to read the bible--learn it and apply it.
For at least 1000 years after the councils were held--no one was allowed to read the bible except upper clergy.--the exact opposite of The real Jesus.
Jesus attended--synagogues and temples of Judaism. They taught, served and worshipped a single being God named-YHVH(Jehovah)--the one Jesus teaches is his God--John 20:17, Rev 3:12--

How do you justify your "Double-Standard" in accusing Trinitarians of mistranslating the Bible when the NWT adds the word "a" in their translation of John 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was "a" god. The Greek reads:

Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος, καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν, καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος.
En archē ēn ho Lógos, kaì ho Lógos ēn pròs tòn Theón, kaì Theòs ēn ho Lógos.
In beginning was the Word, and the Word was with the God, and God was the Word.

The NASB reads: In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. There is no difference in meaning whatsoever in stating "God was the Word" or "The Word was God". Therefore in order for JW's to be able to promote their Arian-antitrinitarianism they must create a mistranslation of the Bible which denies the Deity of Christ in this verse by adding to God's Word in a way which "contradicts" His truth. Both P66 and P75 in English read: In beginning was the Word, and the Word was with the God, and God was the Word.

P66 dates of c.175 or c.125-150 A.D. (John 1:1-6:11, 6:35b-14:26,29-30; 15:2-26; 16:2-4; 16:6-7; 16:10-20:20; 20:22-23; 20:25-21:9; 21:12,17 (fragments of John 19:16). John 1:1 reads: Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος, καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν, καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος.

P75 175-200 A.D., or 175-225 A.D. (most of Luke and John. John 1:1-11:45; 11:48-57; 12:3-13:1; 13:8-9; 14:8-15; part of 14:16; 14:17-29; 15:7-8). John 1:1 reads: Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος, καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν, καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος.

These manuscripts predate your erroneous accusation of mistranslation during the early era of the Roman Catholic Church. "When the Western half of the Roman Empire collapsed in 476, the popes took on the title that had previously belonged to the Roman emperors—Pontifex Maximus. Pope Gregory I, ruling from 590–604, is usually considered the first bishop to truly wield papal authority."
 

Brickjectivity

wind and rain touch not this brain
Staff member
Premium Member
If Jesus is the Word Rev.19:13
And if that same Word is God John 1:1-18
Then Jesus is God John 20:26-29
Actually in John 1 Jesus is the 'Light' not the 'Word'. You have mistakenly mixed in Revelation 19:13 in the middle of citing from John 1. John 1 says the word is God and in him is life, which is the light of men. Jesus is in God. No problem there, but for you apparently its not the declaration that you are searching for. Now then if we look at Revelation 19:13 the word Jesus does not appear but someone whose name is 'Faithful and True'. That's the Logos. That is what gives people power to become sons of God, Jesus included.
 

Rick B

Active Member
Premium Member
Actually in John 1 Jesus is the 'Light' not the 'Word'. You have mistakenly mixed in Revelation 19:13 in the middle of citing from John 1. John 1 says the word is God and in him is life, which is the light of men. Jesus is in God. No problem there, but for you apparently its not the declaration that you are searching for. Now then if we look at Revelation 19:13 the word Jesus does not appear but someone whose name is 'Faithful and True'. That's the Logos. That is what gives people power to become sons of God, Jesus included.

The prologue of John, i.e 1-18, is about Jesus Christ. Revelation 19 is about Jesus Christ. The context of each is plain and clear with the support of all scholarship of which I am aware. If you have respected scholars which have another view I would be happy to review their expository thoughts.

And apparently you do not grasp the concept of Tota Scriptura in utilizing all of Scripture to use as a foundation for formulating a syllogism. It's not mixing but collating.
 
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