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Some common spelling mistakes in English...

Smart_Guy

...
Premium Member
Hello guys.

Without any ado at all (except for the hello above)... let's get started.

Its and it's:
There is a big difference here. "Its" is the possessive form of the pronoun "it". Example for it is "this car looks ugly. Its grill is so big and deformed". The two relate exactly the same as with "he" and "his", and "she" and "her".
"It's" on the other hand is an abbreviation of either "it is" or "it has". And example for them is "it's interesting how it's been only two hours since we got here". The first "it's" stands for "it is" and the second stands for "it has".

Should of?!?!?
Okay, there is no such a thing as "should of". That's a wrong English... ah... thing. It is a mistake people make (hey, that rhymes!) when they try to type "should have". So yeah, the right spelling is "should have" or, as an abbreviation, "should've".

Your and you're:

I believe this is so obvious. "Your" is basically the possessive form of "you", and "you're" is an abbreviation of "you are". Because of the way they sound, just like the earlier problems, this misspelling is seen from time to time.

There and they're (and rarely "their"):
Same as above, these two are sometimes confused with each other because of how they sound. "There" is the distant form the "here" (there are other uses for it too), "they're" is an abbreviation of "they are, and "their" is the possessive form of "they".

Me and I ?
Okay, this is not a spelling mistake really, it is more of a verbal miss use. Sometimes, usually when more than one subject/object is used, "me" could be mistakenly used instead of "I". When the referred noun is used as a subject part of speech, "I" is used, but when it is used as an object part of speech, "me" is used. Examples for that are " Carlita and I went to the grocery store" and "RF gave gifts to Psychoslice and me".

Abdul?!?!
There is no such a word or name as "Abdul". It's a made up name by the misinformed non Arabs that became ridiculously common. Originally it is "abd" and a transformed "al", where the former means slave or creation and the latter is just the definitive article "the" in Arabic cut from the word that should follow it. When it is used, the right and correct way to use it is to connect it to another word without spaces. An example is "Abdulelah", or it can be spelled "AbdulElah" as the connected word is originally Elah, as Muslims use it to refer to God. Arabs before Islam used it too with other gods. That name is actually "Abd" + "al" + "Elah". The only way that "Abdul" is correct word, as opposed to my explanation, is that if it is originated from something else other than that. Actually, there are three ways to put such names depending on their position in the context, but that's complicated and I believe it is okay to just used the above mentioned form in languages other than Arabic.

I've and I have:
The first one; "I've" is obviously an abbreviation of "I have". What could be hidden here tho is that "have" here is an auxiliary verb, not a lexical verb. In layman language, auxiliary verbs are verbs used to support other verbs like in cases of perfect tense sentences; e.g I have seen. Here it can be abbreviated to "I've seen". A lexical verb "have" is as in the example "I have some shawurma here". It is formally wrong to say "I've some shawurma here". Some Americans use it, and there is no problem with that at all. All I'm doing here is telling how the correct way to do it in good standard English.

Am I missing anything else?
 
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Smart_Guy

...
Premium Member
Cool!
Thank you for the input. I don't see a problem using it too. It is just that according to my education in formal English, it is a mistake.
 

Valjean

Veteran Member
Premium Member
So is ending a sentence with a pronoun or splitting infinitives, but these are just rules by grammar Nazis trying to impose foreign grammar on the language.
English has always split infinitives and ended sentences with pronouns.
 

Skwim

Veteran Member
Am I missing anything else?
About 10 more pages of other troublesome words.

Such as :

"who VS "whom":
"on" Vs"upon"
"infer" Vs "imply"
"bad" Vs "badly"
"prescribe" Vs "proscribe"
"continuous" Vs "continual"
"forego" Vs "forgo"
"less" Vs "fewer"
"farther" Vs "further"
"emigrate" Vs "immigrate"
"different from" Vs "different than"
"such as" Vs "like"
"that" Vs "which"
A note. The issue of using "I've" or "I have" is only one of formality. Neither is grammatically incorrect. No grave mistake at all. And, of course, there is no spelling mistake. Both "I've" and "I have" are proper spellings.


.
 
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SomeRandom

Still learning to be wise
Staff member
Premium Member
Ha! What about
Leapt vs leaped
Dreamt vs dreamed
spelt vs spelled
Like geez English, you're home go drunk.

I've also seen then and than misused an awful lot.

I don't think the "I've" is really a spelling or grammatical error. The incorrect context you've provided for it....well I have seen it used quite frequently in actual honest to god English literary classics in that same manner. It's a tad old-fashioned, or at least it sounds like it to me.

English isn't like say, French, where there's some big hoity-toity establishment deciding what is and isn't real English. (Although I assume there is many a prescriptionist who would beg to differ.)
 
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buddhist

Well-Known Member
Its all relative, Abdul! Your making a mountain out of a molehill, me think - there all just words. I've should've reminded you, English is a flexible language!
 

Smart_Guy

...
Premium Member
So is ending a sentence with a pronoun or splitting infinitives, but these are just rules by grammar Nazis trying to impose foreign grammar on the language.
English has always split infinitives and ended sentences with pronouns.

Ehm... that's not a spelling mistake as the main topic here tells ;)

I personally don't end sentences with pronouns when I use correct English. But then again, exaggerating in this is indeed too much, I tend to agree with you.
 

Smart_Guy

...
Premium Member
About 10 more pages of other troublesome words.

Such as :

"who VS "whom":
"on" Vs"upon"
"infer" Vs "imply"
"bad" Vs "badly"
"prescribe" Vs "proscribe"
"continuous" Vs "continual"
"forego" Vs "forgo"
"less" Vs "fewer"
"farther" Vs "further"
"emigrate" Vs "immigrate"
"different from" Vs "different than"
"such as" Vs "like"
"that" Vs "which"
A note. The issue of using "I've" or "I have" is only one of formality. Neither is grammatically incorrect. No grave mistake at all. And, of course, there is no spelling mistake. Both "I've" and "I have" are proper spellings.

Nice post. As for the note, that's a good point. I guess I'll remove that part.
 

Smart_Guy

...
Premium Member
Ha! What about
Leapt vs leaped
Dreamt vs dreamed
spelt vs spelled
Like geez English, you're home go drunk.

I've also seen then and than misused an awful lot.

I don't think the "I've" is really a spelling or grammatical error. The incorrect context you've provided for it....well I have seen it used quite frequently in actual honest to god English literary classics in that same manner. It's a tad old-fashioned, or at least it sounds like it to me.

English isn't like say, French, where there's some big hoity-toity establishment deciding what is and isn't real English. (Although I assume there is many a prescriptionist who would beg to differ.)

Now, how did I miss "than and then"?
 

Smart_Guy

...
Premium Member
Its all relative, Abdul! Your making a mountain out of a molehill, me think - there all just words. I've should've reminded you, English is a flexible language!

All I did was mentioning obvious common mistakes with corrections. Not mountain holes or anything ;)
 

PeteC-UK

Active Member
Hi Folks..

Whats the problem..?...English is a very cosmopolitan language - always changing fluid and dynamic - international - especially today with "txt speak" and many sub culture specific lingo and abreviations.........The point then - is that really there is no longer any absolute or proper structuring to the English language - it can be written many many ways - even phonetically, and yet still its meaning is nearly always apparant...CONTEXT is the key - the rest of the sentence usually shows us the meaning of the misplaced or mispelled or misused word - and so there is really no problem at all, is there..??...

I like to see English written in an individual style - the way we say things and choice of specific words and spellings OF those worlds - allows the personal character and the emotions to be expressed more easily.....If we insist though, on "proper English", then immediatly we would lose all that extra "flavour" so to speak... After all , this is an informal internet forum - we are not sitting an education test here but rather, expressing our Self and our personality as best we may - to that end, I think peoples own individual style should be encouraged and accepted - often, it allows us to see them clearly, gives the blank persona some much needed character...
 

Scuba Pete

Le plongeur avec attitude...
2 phreakin phunni!

Proscriptive vs Descriptive. If you're (not your) learning a language, then (not than) prescriptive English is important. If you're (again, not your) a native speaker, then (again, not than) descriptive is quite often the way to go. Too (not to or two) often, grammar and spelling become a part of the discussion and is in itself a fallacy.

4525c85049a63530c9647895678fa977.jpg

If you must (not mussed) comment (not con men) on a speeling mistook, please PM the offender rather than derailing (not Disraeli) the thread (not tread). Quite (not quiet) often, I can (not can) be found playing with my words (not weirds). It's your (not you're) pun-ishent (get the double entendre'?) for reading my drivel (not dribble).
 
I don't really care about grammatical correctness as long as it doesn't interfere with meaning. Grammar pedantry is generally far more annoying and detrimental to communication.

Saying that I think that people who say 'I could care less' instead of 'I couldn't care less' should be brutally slaughtered and their bodies dissolved in a vat of acid. Also users of pretentious yet incorrect plurals like octopi or rhinoceri.
 
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Smart_Guy

...
Premium Member
Now, it's okay for y'all to criticize and play correction politics when it comes to religion and laws but when I just bring to your attention some unquestionably real and true mistakes in English y'all snap at me?

You guys make me feel guilty :p

Note:
Y'all = you all ;)
 
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Unveiled Artist

Veteran Member
Hello guys.

Without any ado at all (except for the hello above)... let's get started.

Its and it's:
There is a big difference here. "Its" is the possessive form of the pronoun "it". Example for it is "this car looks ugly. Its grill is so big and deformed". The two relate exactly the same as with "he" and "his", and "she" and "her".
"It's" on the other hand is an abbreviation of either "it is" or "it has". And example for them is "it's interesting how it's been only two hours since we got here". The first "it's" stands for "it is" and the second stands for "it has".

Should of?!?!?
Okay, there is no such a thing as "should of". That's a wrong English... ah... thing. It is a mistake people make (hey, that rhymes!) when they try to type "should have". So yeah, the right spelling is "should have" or, as an abbreviation, "should've".

Your and you're:

I believe this is so obvious. "Your" is basically the possessive form of "you", and "you're" is an abbreviation of "you are". Because of the way they sound, just like the earlier problems, this misspelling is seen from time to time.

There and they're (and rarely "their"):
Same as above, these two are sometimes confused with each other because of how they sound. "There" is the distant form the "here" (there are other uses for it too), "they're" is an abbreviation of "they are, and "their" is the possessive form of "they".

Me and I ?
Okay, this is not a spelling mistake really, it is more of a verbal miss use. Sometimes, usually when more than one subject/object is used, "me" could be mistakenly used instead of "I". When the referred noun is used as a subject part of speech, "I" is used, but when it is used as an object part of speech, "me" is used. Examples for that are " Carlita and I went to the grocery store" and "RF gave gifts to Psychoslice and me".

Abdul?!?!
There is no such a word or name as "Abdul". It's a made up name by the misinformed non Arabs that became ridiculously common. Originally it is "abd" and a transformed "al", where the former means slave or creation and the latter is just the definitive article "the" in Arabic cut from the word that should follow it. When it is used, the right and correct way to use it is to connect it to another word without spaces. An example is "Abdulelah", or it can be spelled "AbdulElah" as the connected word is originally Elah, as Muslims use it to refer to God. Arabs before Islam used it too with other gods. That name is actually "Abd" + "al" + "Elah". The only way that "Abdul" is correct word, as opposed to my explanation, is that if it is originated from something else other than that. Actually, there are three ways to put such names depending on their position in the context, but that's complicated and I believe it is okay to just used the above mentioned form in languages other than Arabic.

I've and I have:
The first one; "I've" is obviously an abbreviation of "I have". What could be hidden here tho is that "have" here is an auxiliary verb, not a lexical verb. In layman language, auxiliary verbs are verbs used to support other verbs like in cases of perfect tense sentences; e.g I have seen. Here it can be abbreviated to "I've seen". A lexical verb "have" is as in the example "I have some shawurma here". It is formally wrong to say "I've some shawurma here". Some Americans use it, and there is no problem with that at all. All I'm doing here is telling how the correct way to do it is i good standard English.

Am I missing anything else?


Im gulty of he should-dove. Call it different dialects but as an ESL teacher goin' into language, youd think I know :p
 
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