Psalm 102 is addressed to Yahweh (Jehovah does not exist):
Jehovah knows his name in all languages. English is not the only language in the world you know. Would you like a list of all the different ways YHWH is translated in other languages? "Jehovah" is "YHWH" translated into English. "Yahweh" is a transliteration. I assume you know the difference?
“Let this be recorded for a generation to come, so that a people yet to be created may praise the Lord: that he looked down from his holy height; from heaven the Lord (Yahweh) looked at the earth, to hear the groans of the prisoners, to set free those who were doomed to die, that they may declare in Zion the name of the Lord (Yahweh), and in Jerusalem his praise, when peoples gather together, and kingdoms, to worship the Lord (Yahweh). He has broken my strength in midcourse; he has shortened my days. “O my God,” I say, “take me not away in the midst of my days—you whose years endure throughout all generations!” Of old you laid the foundation of the earth, and the heavens are the work of your hands. They will perish, but you will remain; they will all wear out like a garment. You will change them like a robe, and they will pass away, but you are the same, and your years have no end.” (Psalm 102:25-27)
Here you see how the author of Hebrews applied this passage, which was originally talking about Yahweh to Jesus. Was it a mistake? Absolutely not. John also tells us that Yahweh and Jesus are one and the same.
"The Lord" in the original OT scripture was Jehovah. Since Jesus was the one "through" whom Jehovah created everything, that verse can rightly be attributed to him.
Notice that John tells us that Isaiah saw Jesus' glory:
“When Jesus had said these things, he departed and hid himself from them. Though he had done so many signs before them, they still did not believe in him, so that the word spoken by the prophet Isaiah might be fulfilled: “Lord, who has believed what he heard from us, and to whom has the arm of the Lord been revealed?” Therefore they could not believe. For again Isaiah said, “He has blinded their eyes and hardened their heart, lest they see with their eyes, and understand with their heart, and turn, and I would heal them.” Isaiah said these things because he saw his glory and spoke of him.” (John 12:36-41)
Whose glory did Isaiah see? The answer is in Isaiah 6:
“In the year that King Uzziah died I saw the Lord sitting upon a throne, high and lifted up; and the traina of his robe filled the temple. Above him stood the seraphim. Each had six wings: with two he covered his face, and with two he covered his feet, and with two he flew. And one called to another and said: “Holy, holy, holy is the Lord (Yahweh) of hosts; the whole earth is full of his glory!” And the foundations of the thresholds shook at the voice of him who called, and the house was filled with smoke. And I said: “Woe is me! For I am lost; for I am a man of unclean lips, and I dwell in the midst of a people of unclean lips; for my eyes have seen the King, the Lord (Yahweh) of hosts!” (Isaiah 6:1-5)"
So, Isaiah saw Jesus, who is Yahweh. This is not the only passage that I can use to prove to you that Jesus is Yahweh.
There is no instance of Jesus ever being called Yahweh. Inference does not make a doctrine.
In your estimations, does "glory" only belong to God? Has it occurred to you that all spirit beings are glorious? Even some of God's material creations are glorious. (1 Corinthians 15:35-41)
In the Hebrew Scriptures, the word most often translated “glory” is ka·vohdhʹ, which basically has the sense of “heaviness.”...so glory may refer to anything that makes a person or a thing seem weighty or impressive, such as material wealth (Psalm 49:16), position, or reputation. (Genesis 45:13)
The Greek equivalent of ka·vohdhʹ is doʹxa, which originally meant “opinion; reputation,” but in the Christian Greek Scriptures came to mean “glory.” Among its senses are repute or “honor” (Luke 14:10), splendor (Luke 2:9; 1Corinthians 15:40), and that which brings honor to its owner or maker. (1Corinthians 11:7)
John 17:1-5:
"When Jesus had spoken these words, he lifted up his eyes to heaven, and said, “Father, the hour has come; glorify your Son that the Son may glorify you, 2 since you have given him authority over all flesh, to give eternal life to all whom you have given him. 3 And this is eternal life, that they know you the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom you have sent. 4 I glorified you on earth, having accomplished the work that you gave me to do. 5 And now, Father, glorify me in your own presence with the glory that I had with you before the world existed." (ESV)
Do you see in those words any allusion to an equal status between Jesus and his God? He is asking for God to restore the glory he had before creation began. As a mighty spirit creature whose position is second only to the Father, Jesus was still a servant of his God. (Acts 4:30)
He is directly stating that he was "given" authority to bestow everlasting life to those whom God gave him. He calls his Father "the only true God" without including himself in that definition, but rather saying that he was "sent" by God.
The whole concept of the trinity is scripturally unsupported because one part of God cannot "authorize" an equal part of himself. God already has all authority.....he already has glory and does not need to bestow that on an equal part of himself either. Trinitarians believe that Jesus was both "fully God and fully man" whilst on earth....so how do you explain that Jesus calls his Father "my God" even after his return to heaven? (Revelation 3:12)
You are welcome to believe whatever you wish, but please don't use the Bible to try and support something it has never advocated.