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Isaiah 43:11

Halcyon

Lord of the Badgers
I, even I, am the LORD; and beside me there is no saviour.
Surely this is God himself denying the trinity?

There is God, and beside him is no saviour, no Jesus?
 
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Booko

Deviled Hen
Halcyon said:
Surely this is God himself denying the trinity?

There is God, and beside him is no saviour, no Jesus?

Personally I think a verse like the following provides a better prooftext:

Matt 24:36 But of that day and hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels of heaven, but my Father only.

That is, if the trinity holds, there is no reason I can think of why the Father would know something that Jesus does not.
 

Halcyon

Lord of the Badgers
That's another good one, i also like this from John;

John 20:17
Jesus said, "Do not hold on to me, for I have not yet returned to the Father. Go instead to my brothers and tell them, 'I am returning to my Father and your Father, to my God and your God.' "
How can Jesus have a God, if he is God incarnate?

Here he is speaking to Mary and through her to the apostles, he calls God their Father too - does this mean Mary was the literal daughter of God, and that the apostles were the literal sons of God too?
 
Halcyon said:
Surely this is God himself denying the trinity?

There is God, and beside him is no saviour, no Jesus?

Actually it's an excellent prooftext FOR the Trinity. Jesus is the Savior (Titus 1:4), and therefore, since there is no Savior but God, then Jesus must be God.

FerventGodSeeker
 

Halcyon

Lord of the Badgers
FerventGodSeeker said:
Actually it's an excellent prooftext FOR the Trinity. Jesus is the Savior (Titus 1:4), and therefore, since there is no Savior but God, then Jesus must be God.
But this was God the Father speaking, hundreds of years before the birth of Jesus.

It is also said Jesus sits on the right hand of God, at His side. The Father and Jesus cannot therefore be one and the same, as Jesus is sitting on God's hand. But there is no Saviour beside God - Jesus is not the Saviour if he sits on the right hand of God.
 

Booko

Deviled Hen
Halcyon said:
But this was God the Father speaking, hundreds of years before the birth of Jesus.

Yes, but Trinitarians will argue that the verse in Isaiah didn't refer to Jesus because there was no need to at the time. Isa 43:11, I think, can be read too many ways to be of much use.

It is also said Jesus sits on the right hand of God, at His side. The Father and Jesus cannot therefore be one and the same, as Jesus is sitting on God's hand. But there is no Saviour beside God - Jesus is not the Saviour if he sits on the right hand of God.

Except that in mainstream Christian belief, God is a spirit, so they will just tell you that it's not the "right hand" literally speaking, but means something metaphorical. I don't take it's main meaning as literal either, for that matter.
 

Buttercup

Veteran Member
Halcyon said:
Surely this is God himself denying the trinity?

There is God, and beside him is no saviour, no Jesus?

Not at all. If you read the NT there are many, many verses that describe Jesus and God as equal. "The Word" referenced in the first quote is Jesus

"In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God...All things were made by him...He was in the world, and the world was made by him, and the world knew him not...And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us" John 1:1, 3, 10, 14

"I and my Father are one". John 10:30

"Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am." John 8:58

"For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one." 1 John 5:7
 
Halcyon said:
But this was God the Father speaking, hundreds of years before the birth of Jesus.
How do you know that it was God the Father speaking?

It is also said Jesus sits on the right hand of God, at His side. The Father and Jesus cannot therefore be one and the same, as Jesus is sitting on God's hand. But there is no Saviour beside God - Jesus is not the Saviour if he sits on the right hand of God.
The phrase "right hand of God" (Acts 7:55) is not literal. It is symbolic of power, authority, etc.

"Your right hand, O LORD, has become glorious in power; your right hand, O LORD, has dashed the enemy in pieces." Exodus 15:6

"Now I know that the LORD saves His anointed; he will answer him from His holy heaven with the saving strength of His right hand." Psalm 20:6

"According to Your name, O God, so is Your praise to the ends of the earth; Your right hand is full of righteousness." Psalm 48:10

When Stephen saw Jesus, he saw Him in awesome power and authority. It does not mean he literally saw Jesus standing on God the Father's right side.

FerventGodSeeker
 

Halcyon

Lord of the Badgers
Buttercup said:
Not at all. If you read the NT there are many, many verses that describe Jesus and God as equal. "The Word" referenced in the first quote is Jesus

"In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God...All things were made by him...He was in the world, and the world was made by him, and the world knew him not...And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us" John 1:1, 3, 10, 14
Hmmm, the logos yes. But this is Gnostic mythology only found in John you will notice. It only makes sense in its original Gnostic context.

Buttercup said:
"I and my Father are one". John 10:30
Yes, but this can be interpreted in many ways. I can and often do make the same claim.

Buttercup said:
"Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am." John 8:58
Yes, the logos was before Abraham.

Buttercup said:
"For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one." 1 John 5:7
Three that bear record, but it doesn't say three alone.
 

Halcyon

Lord of the Badgers
FerventGodSeeker said:
How do you know that it was God the Father speaking?
Because Isaiah 43:15 says "I am the LORD, your Holy One, Israel's Creator, your King." Jesus didn't create Israel because he wasn't born yet.

FerventGodSeeker said:
The phrase "right hand of God" (Acts 7:55) is not literal. It is symbolic of power, authority, etc.

When Stephen saw Jesus, he saw Him in awesome power and authority. It does not mean he literally saw Jesus standing on God the Father's right side.
So you take this as allegorical. Why then do you take Jesus talking about his Father in heaven to literally mean he his the offspring of God?
 

Pah

Uber all member
FerventGodSeeker said:
How do you know that it was God the Father speaking?


The phrase "right hand of God" (Acts 7:55) is not literal. It is symbolic of power, authority, etc.

"Your right hand, O LORD, has become glorious in power; your right hand, O LORD, has dashed the enemy in pieces." Exodus 15:6

"Now I know that the LORD saves His anointed; he will answer him from His holy heaven with the saving strength of His right hand." Psalm 20:6

"According to Your name, O God, so is Your praise to the ends of the earth; Your right hand is full of righteousness." Psalm 48:10

When Stephen saw Jesus, he saw Him in awesome power and authority. It does not mean he literally saw Jesus standing on God the Father's right side.

FerventGodSeeker
Are we to believe that you do not think at least some portions of the Bible are literal. How do you differentiate from literal and figurative?
 
Halcyon said:
Because Isaiah 43:15 says "I am the LORD, your Holy One, Israel's Creator, your King." Jesus didn't create Israel because he wasn't born yet.
The fact that He wasn't born physically doesn't mean He didn't exist as spirit. The Word was with God and was God in the beginning. He did not need a physical human form until He came to earth to pay the price for human sin.


So you take this as allegorical. Why then do you take Jesus talking about his Father in heaven to literally mean he his the offspring of God?
I believe that Jesus is the Son of God cheifly because the Bible says it multiple times. It explains quite plainly how the Holy Spirit overshadowed Mary and she came to be with child through the Holy Spirit. That doesn't seem allegorical, it sounds like the Holy Spirit really did give her a child, Jesus, although it was certainly miraculous as she remained a Virgin. There's no reason contextually to take that event as allegorical, and thus Christ truly was and is the Son of God.

FerventGodSeeker
 
Pah said:
FerventGodSeeker said:
Are we to believe that you do not think at least some portions of the Bible are literal. How do you differentiate from literal and figurative?
Well one way is simply through context, both grammatical and historical. When you look at the Biblical examples talking about the "right hand of God", it seems pretty clear that they are metaphorical. Take the example I cited of God's right hand being "full of righteousness". How could a literal hand be "filled" with a quality which is not physical? The "right hand of God" was a jewish expression expressing power, authority, etc.

FerventGodSeeker
 

lunamoth

Will to love
Halcyon said:
Hmmm, the logos yes. But this is Gnostic mythology only found in John you will notice. It only makes sense in its original Gnostic context.
Interesting. Buttercup, along with millions of other Christians have had no trouble understanding this outside a Gnostic context. :)


Yes, but this can be interpreted in many ways. I can and often do make the same claim.
Could you give examples of all the different ways you interpret this?

Yes, the logos was before Abraham.
Yes. The alpha and the omega.


Three that bear record, but it doesn't say three alone.
The earliest Christians of the Church that has existed to this present day have understood the Trinity to be the Manifestation of the One True God to those of us here on earth. I understand that others do not see it this way, but I fail to understand why it is so important to deny the Trinity to Christians. OK, so you see differently. But, if you think that the Trinity is an empty, or even harmful, doctrine, you must also think that Christ was unable to keep the promises He made and that the Holy Spirit did not come and lead us into all Truth as Christ promised. At what point do you think the Spirit abandoned the Church? And, how then can you trust the Bible to tell you anything, literal, metaphorical, spiritual, or otherwise?

lunamoth
 
Halcyon said:
Hmmm, the logos yes. But this is Gnostic mythology only found in John you will notice. It only makes sense in its original Gnostic context.
No, it's Christian theology. The Apostles adamantly opposed Gnosticism.

Yes, the logos was before Abraham.
No, the Logos IS before Abraham. The whole uniqueness of that statemen lies in the fact that Jesus intentionally used the present tense (I am) where the past tense was gramatically appropriate (I was). Jesus is the eternal present tense, He is timeless and eternal. The passage bears odd resemblance to God's own claim back in Exodus to be the "I AM", which also appears gramatically out of context there.

Three that bear record, but it doesn't say three alone.
It says that the three are one...how much more plain of a Trinitarian declaration could you possibly expect?

FerventGodSeeker
 

Defij

Member
Halcyon said:
Surely this is God himself denying the trinity?
Halcyon said:
There is God, and beside him is no saviour, no Jesus?

Well you have to look at that verse in Isaiah in it's historical context. First of all, that is in "Second Isaiah". This part of the book of Isaiah is not written by the prophet Isaiah, but sometime after they were taken captive into Babylon by an unknown prophet who many scholars simply call "second Isaiah".

Up until this point in their history, the Hebrew people were not necessarily "Monotheistic", but more Henotheistic. Now, after the exile, the Babylonian editors of the Tanak can look back on the reason why they are in exile and using the Book of Deuteronomy, they being to develop a very Deuteronomical view of the world; that is simply if one obeys covenant, blessing and prosperity, if one disobeys covenant, curses and the wraith of God.

Now, one of the many developments is this turn to "Monotheism" during the exile. So the author here, in his original context, of course would have no concept of "The Trinity" at all. The concept of the Messiah hadn't even been fully developed, and certainly not until we get into the New Testament, with books that have a high Christology do we have the concept of the Trinity. So yes, this verse here is very Monotheistic, and not very Trinitarian.
 

Halcyon

Lord of the Badgers
lunamoth said:
Interesting. Buttercup, along with millions of other Christians have had no trouble understanding this outside a Gnostic context. :)
Go on then, explain to me why Christ was called the word of God. Also why he's only called this in the gospel fo John.

lunamoth said:
Could you give examples of all the different ways you interpret this?
Sure. I am the son of God because i am male and am a creation of God. I am a part of God, but i am also an individual.

Son of God is also a title. People can become a Son or Daughter of God when the Christ descends upon them and the gain practically unadulterated understanding of God, they become one with God in a much greater sense than unenlightened people, God speaks through them as they are at one with God. However they are not fully God as God is far too great, thus a good title is a Son of God.

lunamoth said:
The earliest Christians of the Church that has existed to this present day have understood the Trinity to be the Manifestation of the One True God to those of us here on earth.
The earliest Christians, are you sure of that?
The proto-orthodox had no concept of Trinity. The Trinity concept came into existance in the 4th century at the Council of Nicea and was later expanded upon int he Athanasian creed in the 6th century. Thats at least 325 years without a doctrine of Trinity within what would become the orthodox chuch alone. Never mind the fact that the earliest Christians were not limited to the proto-orthodox sect of Irenaeous and his buddies.

lunamoth said:
I understand that others do not see it this way, but I fail to understand why it is so important to deny the Trinity to Christians. OK, so you see differently.
Oh i'm fine with people believing in the Trinity, i just came across a passage that seemed to go against the concept and wanted to debate it.

lunamoth said:
But, if you think that the Trinity is an empty, or even harmful, doctrine, you must also think that Christ was unable to keep the promises He made and that the Holy Spirit did not come and lead us into all Truth as Christ promised. At what point do you think the Spirit abandoned the Church? And, how then can you trust the Bible to tell you anything, literal, metaphorical, spiritual, or otherwise?
The spirit was never with the Church, the spirit is with the people. Truth abandoned the Church as soon as man-made beliefs became more important than Christ's message.

FerventGodSeeker said:
No, it's Christian theology. The Apostles adamantly opposed Gnosticism.
No, they didn't.

FerventGodSeeker said:
No, the Logos IS before Abraham. The whole uniqueness of that statemen lies in the fact that Jesus intentionally used the present tense (I am) where the past tense was gramatically appropriate (I was). Jesus is the eternal present tense, He is timeless and eternal. The passage bears odd resemblance to God's own claim back in Exodus to be the "I AM", which also appears gramatically out of context there.
Yes, you are correct. My bad. I was reffering to the fact that the logos existed before Abraham was born, since Abraham existed in a fixed time period.

FerventGodSeeker said:
It says that the three are one...how much more plain of a Trinitarian declaration could you possibly expect?
Quite a lot plainer actually. Along the lines of "God is three forms in one, and three forms alone" would be best.

Valentinians believed in over 30 aspects of God that were one. Three of those are one, 5 of those are one, 15 of those are one etc.
Just because it says that three aspects of God are in fact only aspects of a single source does not mean that those three alone exist. Nor does it even vaguely suggest that those three forms are somehow distinct from one another to the extent that God is tri-form in nature.
 

Buttercup

Veteran Member
I am interested in contributing further to this debate but may I ask for clarification before I proceed?

Are you wanting us to discuss a passage from the OT to explain the idea of the trinity in the NT?

Could you explain just a bit more of what you are looking for? Sorry...just want to make sure I am understanding correctly as I am a bit confused. I can't get back till tonight or tomorrow though....
 

sojourner

Annoyingly Progressive Since 2006
Halcyon said:
But this was God the Father speaking, hundreds of years before the birth of Jesus.

It is also said Jesus sits on the right hand of God, at His side. The Father and Jesus cannot therefore be one and the same, as Jesus is sitting on God's hand. But there is no Saviour beside God - Jesus is not the Saviour if he sits on the right hand of God.

Actually, it was the LORD speaking...not the Father. And Jesus sits at the right hand of the Father. Because Jesus is God, there is no other savior. Trinitarians do not seek to replace God's salvation with the salvation of Jesus -- they are one and the same thing, that is, God's salvation was made available to all through Jesus.
 

Halcyon

Lord of the Badgers
Buttercup said:
I am interested in contributing further to this debate but may I ask for clarification before I proceed?

Are you wanting us to discuss a passage from the OT to explain the idea of the trinity in the NT?

Could you explain just a bit more of what you are looking for? Sorry...just want to make sure I am understanding correctly as I am a bit confused. I can't get back till tonight or tomorrow though....
Sure. We have gone off topic.

Basically, Isaiah is a prophet (or several prophets if you believe many people wrote the book). He was a Jew, a pure monothesist, by which i mean i had no concept of a tri-form God, his God was one being alone.

He "quoted" God as saying that there is no saviour beside Him. Taking Isaiah's religious viewpoint, this seemed to me to be a prophetic warning against a saviour who people will see as equal to God. Jesus is often called the Saviour by Christians.

If this is not referring to the Saviour, which saviour is it referring to?
When i read it it was like being smacked in the face, it seemed like a prophetic declaration that Jesus is not equal to God and so cannot be the second person in any form of Trinity.

sojourner said:
Actually, it was the LORD speaking...not the Father.
Do you happen to know the Hebrew for the english translation of Lord in this case?
I know that several different names and titles for God were simply translated as Lord. The original meaning would help put this into context.
 
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