I'm glad you brought this up. The concept that faith and works are mutually exclusive concepts is the root of the problem itself and can ONLY be found in Paul's letters. I would challenge you to find me any text (besides Paul's) which teaches this type of logic. This statement in
Ephesians 2: 8-10 is tied to Paul's very unique views on "the law" itself. To find out what Paul truly meant by this logic we have to go to Romans. This is where we get to hear Paul expand on his inner logic behind his theological views. Here is my close friend Scott Nelson's take on this matter, which I am in complete agreement with:
""Moreover the Law entered
that (for this purpose) the offense (sin) might abound. But where sin abounded, grace abounded much more, so that as sin reigned in death, even so grace might reign through righteousness to eternal life through Jesus Christ our Lord."
Romans 5:20
Again he draws the mutually exclusive picture of Law versus grace in the following.
"For sin shall not have dominion over you, for you are not under Law but under grace."
Romans 6:14
Later on in Romans, Paul uses an analogy from the time of Elijah to make his grace-versus-works point.
But what does the divine response say to him
(Elijah)? "I have reserved for Myself seven thousand men who have not bowed the knee to Baal."
Even so then, at this present time there is a remnant
(of Israel) according to the election of grace. And
if by grace,
then it is no longer of works; otherwise grace is no longer grace. But if it is of works, it is no longer grace; otherwise work is no longer work.
Romans 11:4-6
Paul's logic is so stood on its head, and his proof demonstrated with smoke and mirrors here that it's almost humorous. It would be if so many didn't actually believe this is the infallible word of God! The only thing that Paul derives from what God said to Elijah is that He had reserved a "remnant" for Himself. Nothing more! Never mind the fact that these seven thousand men had themselves remained true to God's Law and
not bowed their knee to Baal! Sounds like works to me! But then, to keep the illusion going, Paul states that this new remnant of saved Israel is "according to the election of grace". This he bases on the assumption that he firmly established the concept of
predestination and the
election by grace earlier in the infamous passages of
Romans 9. This detestable doctrine is itself based on numerous misquotes of Scripture as I have shown. But now Paul continues to build lie on top of lie with the flow of logic that if salvation is by grace, then it is no longer by works; otherwise grace is no longer grace!
What utter nonsense! Where is it written that grace and Law (works) are mutually exclusive concepts... other than in Paul's writings? Paul had previously tried to establish this principle that the two concepts cannot go together with this slight-of-hand.