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Problems with Noah and the flood

dantech

Well-Known Member
It says "and he is doing"... active tense right now.

gen622action-png.8278

This should be enough to close this thread
 

Pegg

Jehovah our God is One
I have been studying Genesis closely especially the original words. Let's look at Genesis 6:13 regarding the "flood of Noah".

Then God said to Noah, “The end of all flesh has come before Me; for the earth is filled with violence because of them; and behold, I am about to destroy them with the earth. Genesis 6:13

Who was speaking to Noah?

“God” right?

I have confirmed the original Hebrew word is “Elohim” the same exact name for “God” who did all the very high level creating in Genesis 1.

Now, look at this very high level “God” and what he tells Noah exactly in this next verse.

And of every living thing of all flesh, you shall bring two of every kind into the ark, to keep them alive with you; they shall be male and female Genesis 6:19

How many of each kind does “God” tell Noah to bring into the Ark?

Gods commands continue until the last verse of Chapter “6” which is:

Thus Noah did; according to all that God had commanded him, so he did. Genesis 6:22

Do you see how at the end of chapter “6” Noah DID ALL THAT God (same word Elohim) commanded him? (It is done there at the end of “6”)

Now, let’s go to the next chapter 7 and pay close attention.

Then the Lord said to Noah, “Enter the ark, you and all your household, for you alone I have seen to be righteous before Me in this time Genesis 7:1

Woah… did you catch that? Who is speaking NOW?

It is the original Hebrew word “Lord” (without “the”).

Do you see any problems here? (This is where many will miss or SKIP over or maybe even rationalize away, but I am convinced by admitting there are problems here, God will reveal a deeper and HIGHER truth. I see it myself.)

But first, the “Problems” I see

First: Didn’t Noah already DO what “God” commanded him by the end of chapter “6”? (See 6:22 again above)

Second:
Do you see it is no longer “God” speaking. Now, we have the “Lord” speaking. (original word is actually “Lord” and not “the Lord”)

Third:
Look at what HE (Lord) instructs Noah to do.

You shall take with you of every clean animal by sevens, a male and his female; and of the animals that are not clean two, a male and his female; Genesis 7:2

Compare this with Genesis 6:19.

Do you see these “problems”? Ideas?

(If anyone wants to hear what I am seeing, just drop me a message. It's awesome)

We can call God by the title 'God' or by the title 'Lord' and still be talking to the same person. These are just titles and they are used like this throughout the bible so it shouldnt be surprising.

Secondly, Chapter 6 ends with Gods command to build an ark, and it says Noah 'did just so'.
Have you considered how long it would have taken Noah and his 3 sons to build that ark? Do you think he built it instantly? A few days? A few weeks? 6months???
Try 40 years. Thats how long it took him to build.

Now chapter 7 begins by God saying "Enter into the ark" and he gives an additional command to take 7 clean animals in addition to the pairs of all the animals previously instructed.

I dont see any problem with this scenario at all. What do you see?
 
This is what I have found is wrong with interpretation Noah's flood in the strict biblical sense. I order to really understand the biblical story of Noah one has to understand the history of this story. What we have found is archeological evidence that dates at least 1000 yeas before the biblical story from the Sumerians and Babylonians and others. I strongly suggest you look into this story more here are some links.

Noah's Ark - The Real Story **NEW** by BBC Award Winning Documentary

Noah's Ark is Plagiarized. Here's how we know ...
Great Flood - Sumerian Version

Prehistoric Megastorms - Noah's Great Flood

Noah's Ark is a Mesopotamian myth

Noah's Ark Prototype was Round
Noah's Ark Prototype was Round
 

Pegg

Jehovah our God is One
Paragraph 4 alludes to it, but not with any detail
Beyond Pshat - Ha'azinu, 5763 - Torah.org

It says the 'midrash' says that one of the reasons Noach built the Ark over 120 years was so that the people of the generation should see him building it and ask him -what it's the purpose of this structure?
So their source of the 120 years of building is not from the bible account.

The bible tells us that Noah was 600 years old when the flood waters began. And it also tells us that Noah was 500 years old when he 'began' to have children. His 3 sons were all married when Noah was building the ark and when they went into it. So he certainly couldnt have spent 120 years building it.
 

rosends

Well-Known Member
It says the 'midrash' says that one of the reasons Noach built the Ark over 120 years was so that the people of the generation should see him building it and ask him -what it's the purpose of this structure?
So their source of the 120 years of building is not from the bible account.

The bible tells us that Noah was 600 years old when the flood waters began. And it also tells us that Noah was 500 years old when he 'began' to have children. His 3 sons were all married when Noah was building the ark and when they went into it. So he certainly couldnt have spent 120 years building it.
The 120 figure is from the Jewish POV, that's true. As I said, other sources have it at other lengths based on textual analysis. I can't vouch for this site, but it shows its math
How Long Did It Take for Noah to Build the Ark? | Answers in Genesis
 

Pegg

Jehovah our God is One
The 120 figure is from the Jewish POV, that's true. As I said, other sources have it at other lengths based on textual analysis. I can't vouch for this site, but it shows its math
How Long Did It Take for Noah to Build the Ark? | Answers in Genesis

Yes, thats a lot more accurate then the Midrash.

Noah spent at least 40 years building the ark with his 3 sons...and the declaration that God would send a flood came exactly 120 years before the flood. So the 120years was not a declaration to Noah....it was a declaration God made in the heavens for the length of time until he brought the flood. Noah was only 580 years old when that declaration was given in heaven....it would be at least another 50 odd years (time for Noah to have 3 sons and for them to all grow up and get married) before God spoke to Noah to inform him of the plan.
 

URAVIP2ME

Veteran Member
Sure.
You mentioned "without spot from the world" specifically.
James 4:4 makes this even more firm. "Adulteresses, (or "You unfaithful ones.") do you not know that friendship with the world is enmity with God? Whoever, therefore, wants to be a friend of the world is making himself an enemy of God."
The term "world" here is the society of people we live in the midst of. While we care for people individually we take care not to adopt the attitudes, speech and conduct that is morally stupid from God's standpoint.
We are reminded of Proverbs 13:20.
The one walking with the wise will become wise,
But the one who has dealing with the stupid one will fare badly.
We need to watch ourselves so that we do not fare badly by becoming like the world and it's ways.
"Now the works of the flesh are plainly seen, and they are sexual immorality, uncleanness, brazen conduct, (or "shameless conduct.") idolatry, spiritism, (or "sorcery; druggery.") hostility, strife, jealousy, fits of anger, dissension, divisions, sects, envy, drunkenness, wild parties, (or "revelries.") and things like these. I am forewarning you about these things, the same way I already warned you, that those who practice such things will not inherit God's Kingdom." - Galatians 5:19-21
Any one of these things will have us standing before God with a spot on our shirt as it were.

Thank you for your reply. Yes, all of the ^ above ^ would be a ' spot on the shirt ', so to speak. Those people having the selfish form of love described at 2nd Timothy 3 vs 1-5,13 which is in sharp contrast with the Bible's definition of love defined at 1st Cor. 13 vs 4-6

I'd like to add that besides Not being spotted with the ' works of the flesh ' as listed at Galatians, Jesus, nor any of his 1st century followers, became involved with the political issues of the day, including the issues between the Jews and the Romans, but they remained neutral (unspotted ) in world affairs.
 

we-live-now

Active Member
we-live-now, who doesn't like religion, just wants the truth.

Well, you are Not alone. Even Jesus did Not like the religion of the Pharisees - see Matthew chapter 23; Matthew 15:9; Mark 7:1-7,13
Jesus too just wanted the truth, that is the ' religious truth ' as found in Scripture - John 17:17 - the Scriptures are religious truth.
That is why Jesus based his teachings on his logical reasoning on the old Hebrew Scriptures explaining them for us.
When Jesus said ' the truth will set you free ' that included religious truth setting one free from religious falsehoods.
So, perhaps, like Jesus, you might want to consider that what you don't like is false worship or false religion. - James 1:27

Those are very valid points and I think I hear/understand what you are saying.

I also don't think it is possible for any of us to worship in PURE truth outwardly in our fleshly natural man of the natural body called "the flesh". It is dead spiritually and has no faith whatsoever. All things it does are not pleasing to God because only faith pleases him. Hebrews 11:6 It must die and will die because it is also part of God's "living sacrifice". Romans 12:1, 1 Cor 12:27, Romans 12:5

Have you ever heard that according to one of the original Greek words used in Matthew 27:42 and Mark 15:32, his body may still be on the cross right "now"? Could it be a spiritual cross (death) and we thought it was natural/physical? Could it be this entire dying creation including our natural bodies? I share a bit in this post.

I believe the ONLY true and pure worship (pure religion if you prefer that) is in our inner man or our heart who is Jesus himself. This is done by Jesus the Son himself who is our high priest (Hebrews 4:14) and is worshipping God (the father) directly for us and as us in a pure and Holy way whether we are under law (Old covenant) or grace (new covenant).

"But an hour is coming, and now is, when the true worshipers will worship the Father in spirit and truth; for such people the Father seeks to be His worshipers John 4:23

True worship occurs only in our inner man or our hearts and God does it for us. This is mind-blowing. This is also how we can "pray continually" 1 Thes 5:17 and how and why the "Spirit prays for us" in Romans 8:26-27. Christ truly IS all and IN all. Col 3:11. All external forms are false and will die with the body. His body called "the flesh" which is also the veil. Hebrews 10:20.

God bless.
 
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we-live-now

Active Member
unlike English, Hebrew verbs do not have past, present, and future tenses. There is only imperfect and perfect tense. Where the one tense shows continuous or unfinished action, the other shows completed action. The context tells us if it is past, present or future in English.



In this case, yes. Yahweh, or the English equivalent, Jehovah, is the proper name for the person known by the title 'majestic' God (intensive plural) at Ge 6:22. Because of Jewish superstition that declared the personal name of God as something that should never be pronounced, many Bibles translate the divine name as LORD. Leaving it in all caps is their way of acknowledging that it originally was the divine name in that location.

I would have to disagree with the idea that these two names are the same thing. God makes a big deal over his names and he is always 100% precise and accurate in his specific words he uses. He will not use different words/names for the same thing. I believe his words and names are always 100% precise and accurate and always do what they are intended with no chance of variation or failure.

He reveals this to Moses in Exodus 6:3.

and I appeared to Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob, as God Almighty, but by My name, Lord, I did not make Myself known to them Exodus 6:3

The name that God reveals himself as is very important and it completely determines your relationship to him. I have you noticed the specific names and ways he talks to Abram and identified himself.

Now when Abram was ninety-nine years old, the LORD appeared to Abram and said to him, "I am God Almighty; Walk before Me, and be blameless Genesis 17:1

This very high name of God called "God Almighty" was revealed to Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob. I believe this is what caused them to be under grace. However, the name "Lord" is a law-based name he reveals to those still under the old covenant. I see God as truly working in multiple realms of man at the same time and each person's covenant they are under is based on how God reveals himself. He often has multiple "names" of himself going at the same time.
 

Kolibri

Well-Known Member
I would have to disagree with the idea that these two names are the same thing. God makes a big deal over his names and he is always 100% precise and accurate in his specific words he uses. He will not use different words/names for the same thing. I believe his words and names are always 100% precise and accurate and always do what they are intended with no chance of variation or failure.

He reveals this to Moses in Exodus 6:3.

and I appeared to Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob, as God Almighty, but by My name, Lord, I did not make Myself known to them Exodus 6:3

The name that God reveals himself as is very important and it completely determines your relationship to him. I have you noticed the specific names and ways he talks to Abram and identified himself.

Now when Abram was ninety-nine years old, the LORD appeared to Abram and said to him, "I am God Almighty; Walk before Me, and be blameless Genesis 17:1

This very high name of God called "God Almighty" was revealed to Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob. I believe this is what caused them to be under grace. However, the name "Lord" is a law-based name he reveals to those still under the old covenant. I see God as truly working in multiple realms of man at the same time and each person's covenant they are under is based on how God reveals himself. He often has multiple "names" of himself going at the same time.

When I was responding to the OP I had not looked up Ge 7:1 right off the bat. So I did not know that a comparison was not being made between 2 titles, but that a comparison was being made between a title and a name hidden by a title. When I saw the all caps "LORD", I realized the mistake I made.

Likewise the divine name shows up in Ge 17:1 and Exodus 6:3 hidden by the translation you use by the all-caps LORD.

We can know that the meaning of God's reputation would certainly be understood to be more than "I am the all powerful one," as he delivered the Israelites from Egyptian slavery.
It was with the signs and miracles in the land of Egypt that God made a name for himself. (Jer 32:20)

This is in line with Ex 3:14, where the correct verb tense translates as "I Will Become What I Choose to Become" or "I Will Prove to Be What I Will Prove to Be." Now Jehovah would be known as a God that will become whatever is needed to fulfill his purpose, not just as the Almighty God. Now he is a Shepherd, a Teacher, a Deliverer, a Lawgiver, a Father, etc.

Other proof that Abram knew the divine name and not just Lord/God Almighty is when Abraham is speaking with an angel representing God as if in the 1st person. There in Ge 18:16-33, the account uses what is translated today as Jehovah coming directly out of Abraham's mouth in verses 27,30,31 and 32.
 
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we-live-now

Active Member
I'm gonna ask this again. Do you understand Hebrew, Aramaic & Greek?

My (seemingly hostile) friend.

I am not looking to become a language scholar or expert. I am only searching for the truth which I believe NEVER changes. I believe that has NOTHING to do with becoming a language expert. I certainly could be wrong though.

If you know otherwise, please do enlighten me. I will gladly listen.

A child can look at two Hebrew or Greek words and see if they are different even if they don't know what they exactly mean. I think I at least qualify as a "child'. I do have a college degree and work all day solving abstract IT problems.

So, what exactly is your motive here? Are you trying to help me find truth or simply out to prove me wrong no matter what it is I am doing?

Are you for me or against me? Why are you always making it about ME instead of the ideas being discussed?
 
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Nietzsche

The Last Prussian
Premium Member
My (seemingly hostile) friend.

I am not looking to become a language scholar or expert. I am only searching for the truth which I believe NEVER changes. I believe that has NOTHING to do with becoming a language expert. I certainly could be wrong though.

If you know otherwise, please do enlighten me. I will gladly listen.

A child can look at two Hebrew or Greek words and see if they are different even if they don't know what they exactly mean. I think I at least qualify as a "child'. I do have a college degree and work all day solving abstract IT problems.

So, what exactly is your motive here? Are you trying to help me find truth or simply out to prove me wrong no matter what it is I am doing?

Are you for me or against me? Why are you always making it about ME instead of the ideas being discussed?
I ask only because if you did, my explanation would've been much shorter. However, you do not. Give me a minute to write this up and I'll show you why you're approaching this from the wrong direction.
 

Nietzsche

The Last Prussian
Premium Member
Alright. First things' first. Hebrew is an agonizing language to learn. Why? Because it contains no vowels. Think about that for a second. Imagine if I typed everything before "Why?" without vowels. Actually, screw it, here;

Rght. Frst thng's frst. Hbrw s n gonzng lngg t lrn.

That still looks legible, right? Do you know why? Because you know where the vowels are supposed to be. So here's test two, I'm going to show you the vowel-less version only and I want you to tell me what you think I said. It's going to be a bit of poetry too, which is important, because the Hebrew Scriptures are largely that, poetic.

Knwst th tht gv
t ths ght nt -
vctry t cwrds?
Th ws ght wntrs
n th rth blw,
mlkd cw s wmn,
nd ddst thr br chldrn.
Nw tht, mthnks, btkns bs ntr.

Bt, t s sd, th wntst
wth tttrng stps n Sms,
nd knckd t hss s Vl.
n lknss f frtn tllr,
th wntst mng ppl;
Nw tht, mthnks, btkns bs ntr.

Chew on this for a bit while I do some things round' the house and then we'll get into the absurdities of Hebrew, Greek & Aramaic grammar as well, which I think will shed more light on why you cannot just look at the individual word in these languages.
 

Kolibri

Well-Known Member
Alright. First things' first. Hebrew is an agonizing language to learn. Why? Because it contains no vowels. Think about that for a second. Imagine if I typed everything before "Why?" without vowels. Actually, screw it, here;

Rght. Frst thng's frst. Hbrw s n gonzng lngg t lrn.

That still looks legible, right? Do you know why? Because you know where the vowels are supposed to be. So here's test two, I'm going to show you the vowel-less version only and I want you to tell me what you think I said. It's going to be a bit of poetry too, which is important, because the Hebrew Scriptures are largely that, poetic.

Knwst th tht gv
t ths ght nt -
vctry t cwrds?
Th ws ght wntrs
n th rth blw,
mlkd cw s wmn,
nd ddst thr br chldrn.
Nw tht, mthnks, btkns bs ntr.

Bt, t s sd, th wntst
wth tttrng stps n Sms,
nd knckd t hss s Vl.
n lknss f frtn tllr,
th wntst mng ppl;
Nw tht, mthnks, btkns bs ntr.

Chew on this for a bit while I do some things round' the house and then we'll get into the absurdities of Hebrew, Greek & Aramaic grammar as well, which I think will shed more light on why you cannot just look at the individual word in these languages.
iirc, there were no spaces between the words either.
 
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