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Jehovah - Jesus

Marco19

Researcher
Hello dear LDS friends,

I would like to know how do you understand the following verse:

Psalm 110:1 reads:
"The LORD [Jehovah] said unto my Lord [Adonai], Sit thou at my right-hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool."

If God / Jehovah is talking to Jesus then how comes that Jesus is Jehovah as D&C 110:3-4 says:

... even the voice of Jehovah, saying:

4 I am the first and the last; I am he who liveth, I am he who was slain; I am your advocate with the Father.

Thanks in advance :)
 

Orontes

Master of the Horse
Hi Marco,

I do not think there is any official LDS position on this verse. I don’t know of any. I can only give you my own view as one Mormon. I think to better understand the verse one should quote the full opening. From the NIV:

Of David. A psalm. The LORD says to my lord: “Sit at my right hand until I make your enemies a footstool for your feet.” - Psalm 110:1

Note the beginning part “Of David, A Psalm” This is part of the actual text, but in some Bibles this beginning part is overlooked perhaps due to how the text is formatted or presented. I think what one can see from including the full text, someone is writing about King David. David did not write this psalm: it is about David, or regarding David. “The Lord” is YHWH, the God of Israel. “My Lord” is Adoni, this is the lord of the writer: King David. The thrust of the verse then is the psalmist having God address King David and his positioning. This is the text. Now one might want to go further and look to the role(s) of the King and how that plays into Messiah ideas i.e. the Messiah ben Joseph and/or Messiah ben David etc., but the text itself is YHWH speaking to the King, David.
 
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Marco19

Researcher
Hi Marco,

I do not think there is any official LDS position on this verse. I don’t know of any. I can only give you my own view as one Mormon. I think to better understand the verse one should quote the full opening. From the NIV:

Of David. A psalm. The LORD says to my lord: “Sit at my right hand until I make your enemies a footstool for your feet.” - Psalm 110:1

Note the beginning part “Of David, A Psalm” This is part of the actual text, but in some Bibles this beginning part is overlooked perhaps due to how the text is formatted or presented. I think what one can see from including the full text, someone is writing about King David. David did not write this psalm: it is about David, or regarding David. “The Lord” is YHWH, the God of Israel. “My Lord” is Adoni, this is the lord of the writer: King David. The thrust of the verse then is the psalmist having God address King David and his positioning. This is the text. Now one might want to go further and look to the role(s) of the King and how that plays into Messiah ideas i.e. the Messiah ben Joseph and/or Messiah ben David etc., but the text itself is YHWH speaking to the King, David.

Thank you Orontes for sharing thoughts,

Well, you might be right but I think it won't make any change, because whoever is the second lord or adonai is not important. The main issue remains with the first lord / Jehovah.

I wonder how comes that you've mentioned this in your post:
“The Lord” is YHWH, the God of Israel

Doesn't this statement contradict what D&C says? or I'm mistaken?

Thanks in advance :)
 

Orontes

Master of the Horse
Thank you Orontes for sharing thoughts,

Well, you might be right but I think it won't make any change, because whoever is the second lord or adonai is not important. The main issue remains with the first lord / Jehovah.

I wonder how comes that you've mentioned this in your post:

Doesn't this statement contradict what D&C says? or I'm mistaken?

Thanks in advance :)

Mormons hold that YHWH/Jehovah is the God of Israel. He is the one who presented Moses with the Ten Commandments, the one who accepted Solomon’s Temple and is the one who assumed a mortal coil to become the Messiah: Jesus. Note:

26 And the angel said unto me again: Look and behold the condescension of God! 27 And I looked and beheld the Redeemer of the world, of whom my father had spoken; and I also beheld the prophet who should prepare the way before him. And the Lamb of God went forth and was baptized of him; and after he was baptized, I beheld the heavens open, and the Holy Ghost come down out of heaven and abide upon him in the form of a dove. 28 And I beheld that he went forth ministering unto the people, in power and great glory; and the multitudes were gathered together to hear him; and I beheld that they cast him out from among them….33 And I, Nephi, saw that he was lifted up upon the cross and slain for the sins of the world. – 1 Nephi 11: 26-28, 33 (Book of Mormon)​


The God noted in verse 26 above is YHWH. YHWH is who becomes Jesus.
 
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Marco19

Researcher
I have been looking through all the points in our previous posts, and still find a piece of puzzle missing, will be happy if you further help :)

If we take OT/Psalms as you have explained LORD=Jehovah=Jesus, & the 2nd lord=David, & compare with the evangelist in NT Mark 12:35-37, Luke 20:42-44, & Mat 22:43-45 says:
43 He saith unto them, How then doth David in spirit call him Lord, saying,

44 The Lord said unto my Lord, Sit thou on my right hand, till I make thine enemies thy footstool?

45 If David then call him Lord, how is he his son?

So the above text is sort of a confusing, will be happy if you shed a light on the matter.

Thanks in advance :)
 

Orontes

Master of the Horse
I have been looking through all the points in our previous posts, and still find a piece of puzzle missing, will be happy if you further help :)

If we take OT/Psalms as you have explained LORD=Jehovah=Jesus, & the 2nd lord=David, & compare with the evangelist in NT Mark 12:35-37, Luke 20:42-44, & Mat 22:43-45 says:


So the above text is sort of a confusing, will be happy if you shed a light on the matter.

Thanks in advance :)

The Jesus Movement and what would develop into Christianity took a number of scriptures from the Tanakh as messianic. These were then applied to Jesus. Psalm 110 is an example of this. The text is extended in meaning beyond King David proper to apply to an expected messiah, a Messiah ben David, who would be successful over His enemies and sit at the right hand of God*. The Synoptic verses you cite where Jesus uses this verse to humble his adversaries** do not convey this ultimate connection. A more clear example is found in Acts 2: 34-36:
34“ For David did not ascend to heaven, and yet he said, “‘The Lord said to my Lord: “Sit at my right hand 35 until I make your enemies a footstool for your feet.”’ 36 “Therefore let all Israel be assured of this: God has made this Jesus, whom you crucified, both Lord and Messiah.” –Acts 2:34-36​

*This would be God the Father (not Jehovah), where Jesus is His only Begotten in whose name He acts.

** Recall, Jesus asks this question about Psalms 110 immediately after he has been challenged and tempted to explain which was the greatest commandment in the law.
 
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