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Gospel of Barnabas

Jayhawker Soule

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Premium Member
mehrosh said:
If you are a Christian you are making a joke of yourself....
Thanks for sharing ...

mehrosh said:
ask any Hebrew scholar to read the Hebrew word which appears as "altogether lovely" in the translation of the Song of Solomon, chapter 5, verse 16. You will hear that word pronounced "Muhammad." Which is camouflaged in the Translation

Want more proves from the Bible....?
As I said: inordinantly silly!
 

gnostic

The Lost One
mehrosh, I have come across this sort of debate before in islam.com. This is nothing more than medieval forgery. That a Muslim would bring this argument up, over and over again, I can only admire Muslim persistence of clear propaganda agenda, but not their illogical argument.

I have read it before, and there are too many clues that are left in the text that indicate it is clearly medieval pseudepigrapha literature.

There is a clear indication that Barnabas and Paul were friends and travelling companions, but in this gospel it showed strong denunication against Paul.

But that's not what make it a forgery.

It is clear in the bible that he was really named Joseph, but the apostles named him Barnabas after Jesus' ascension (Acts 4:6). But in the gospel of Barnabas, he was among Jesus' apostles several years before his ascension and that Jesus had called him by the name "Barnabas" instead of "Joseph", is not really credible.

There are discrepencies found in the so-called gospel that indicated that it is fake.

The gospel says that the jubilee happened every 100 years, but throughout the Jewish history, and recorded in Leviticus 25.11, jubilee only happened every 50 years.

Only Pope Boniface (I don't which Boniface; sorry I don't keep track of number), around 1300, had decreed a 100-year jubilee, before Pope Clemens (don't know his number too) had reverted the jubilee back to 50-year. So this gospel could be written at this period.

The gospel also mention some objects that didn't exist at that period, and could only have come from medieval time, such as the wooden wine barrel or cask. Such thing is medieval invention. Wine were store in ceramic jars or wineskins in ancient times.

The other things is that the gospel allude to feudal towns, when Barnabas speaks of Larazus and his sisters.

The climate is also wrong for this region in Palestine, and wrong about the geography too.

I may not know as much about the bible as many people here do, but I know enough about ancient and medieval history.
 

Jayhawker Soule

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Premium Member
mehrosh said:
Better Explain...
Or what ... you'll pout? :D

The transliteration of the word in question is 'machmadim', the plural form of 'machmad'.

To see "Muhammad ... camouflaged in the Translation" makes about as much sense as discovering Muhammad camouflaged in every reference to 'milk maids' and 'macadamia nuts' - something you might well wish to consider.
 

sojourner

Annoyingly Progressive Since 2006
Ibrahim Al-Amin said:
I agree. And I apply the same standard to the Bible. None of the Gospels were written by the supposed authors (in my opinon). [If I don't write, "in my opinion," JamesThePersian will come after me. Love ya, James!]
Yes, that's true. But the authenticity of the canonical gospels do not hinge on authorship.
 

sojourner

Annoyingly Progressive Since 2006
mehrosh said:
Relying on Mysteries blindly will never Help, Bible is not in it's original Form, it has been changed....I am not telling you anything new, Rather I am telling you to go back to your Bible,...You will find it leading you to the truth....The Bible talks about Muhammed the last Prophet ..if only you try and study the Bible in depth..
What is it you think I'm trying to "help" by stating that something is a mystery? Does our salvation depend upon being able to explain everything?

Of course the Bible has changed (in a sense.) Texts were edited, redacted, embellished, translated. That affects things how?

What do you mean "go back to the Bible? I've not gone away from the Bible...ever. I have always found the Bible to lead me to truth.

I have studied (and still continue to study) the Bible in depth. I haven't found it to be nearly as convoluted as you present it here.

Maybe it would help if I took hallucinogens while I studied the Bible...
 
sojourner said:
Yes, that's true. But the authenticity of the canonical gospels do not hinge on authorship.
Maybe my words came across wrong, but I'm actually agreeing with you on this subject. Aside from that, you bring up a valid point: if the authenticity of the gospels do not hinge on authorship, how can we be assured of their validity?
 
Jayhawker Soule said:
Or what ... you'll pout? :D

The transliteration of the word in question is 'machmadim', the plural form of 'machmad'.

To see "Muhammad ... camouflaged in the Translation" makes about as much sense as discovering Muhammad camouflaged in every reference to 'milk maids' and 'macadamia nuts' - something you might well wish to consider.
Fascinating stuff. Just curious, what does "machmad" mean?
 

sojourner

Annoyingly Progressive Since 2006
Ibrahim Al-Amin said:
Maybe my words came across wrong, but I'm actually agreeing with you on this subject. Aside from that, you bring up a valid point: if the authenticity of the gospels do not hinge on authorship, how can we be assured of their validity?
No, you didn't come across wrong. I find this sort of scholarly debate fascinating. The authenticity of the gospels does not hinge on authorship, because we can't prove authorship. The authenticity is found in the style of writing, in the continuity of style and message, and in the cogency and relativity of the writings to each other.
 
sojourner said:
No, you didn't come across wrong. I find this sort of scholarly debate fascinating. The authenticity of the gospels does not hinge on authorship, because we can't prove authorship. The authenticity is found in the style of writing, in the continuity of style and message, and in the cogency and relativity of the writings to each other.
I understand. But with the authenticity being found in style, continuity, cogency, and relativity, it brings up the next question, regarding "Q." If the language in Mark and Luke can be traced to "Q," and the language of Matthew being a product of Mark, it seems as though there's really only one author of the 3 synoptic gospels. This is something that's always puzzled me as a layperson; I certainly am not an expert. So, maybe the question should be directed into a new thread, but I wonder, how do Christians reconcile the written "evidence" that there's possibly only one "synoptic" gospel?
 

sojourner

Annoyingly Progressive Since 2006
Ibrahim Al-Amin said:
I understand. But with the authenticity being found in style, continuity, cogency, and relativity, it brings up the next question, regarding "Q." If the language in Mark and Luke can be traced to "Q," and the language of Matthew being a product of Mark, it seems as though there's really only one author of the 3 synoptic gospels. This is something that's always puzzled me as a layperson; I certainly am not an expert. So, maybe the question should be directed into a new thread, but I wonder, how do Christians reconcile the written "evidence" that there's possibly only one "synoptic" gospel?
Mark does not use Q. Mark is unique. Matthew and Luke both use Q, Mark, and original material. So it really is a four-source theory: Q, Mark, Matthew, Luke.
 
sojourner said:
Mark does not use Q. Mark is unique. Matthew and Luke both use Q, Mark, and original material. So it really is a four-source theory: Q, Mark, Matthew, Luke.
Thanks. I may be remembering it wrong, but I could swear Mark used Q, and unfortunately I am two days away from my library so I can't verify my thoughts. In any case, as you wrote above, even if Matthew and Luke used Q, then really it's only two sources: Q and Mark. What am I missing? Is it the "original material" you reference? If so, I understand, but the majority of and most important aspects to each story still centers on the "Q" portion, which makes it appear that, without the Q relationship, we would have entirely unrelated stories of Jesus.
 

gnostic

The Lost One
What of John?

I know that is not synpotic, but does it say of John's relationship to the other gospels?
 
gnostic said:
What of John?

I know that is not synpotic, but does it say of John's relationship to the other gospels?
Well, that's the most confounding part. There are the three synoptic gospels with so much in common that it is believed that they originate from nearly the same source. Then there's John, which as a whole is significantly different, with a few related stories.

So in all, there's a scattering of fragmented stories that make up the 4 Gospels, on which the entire religion is based, written by two different authors decades apart.
 

Jayhawker Soule

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Premium Member
sojourner said:
Mark does not use Q. Mark is unique. Matthew and Luke both use Q, Mark, and original material. So it really is a four-source theory: Q, Mark, Matthew, Luke.
It is called the Two Source Hypothesis for two reasons:
  1. it postulates two primary sources, and
  2. it is an hypothesis, not a fact.
 

sojourner

Annoyingly Progressive Since 2006
Jayhawker Soule said:
It is called the Two Source Hypothesis for two reasons:

  1. it postulates two primary sources, and
  2. it is an hypothesis, not a fact.
Except that both Matthew and Luke do incorporate original material, not found in either Mark or Q.

No. It's not a fact, but it's the best tool we've got, and it serves the purposes of criticism very, very well. There has been some disagreement since it was formulated, but most noted scholars agree on its veracity.
 
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