nazz
Doubting Thomas
Its an impossibility for the comma to precede the word today in that passage-- a trinity translation error.
Impossible? Why?
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Its an impossibility for the comma to precede the word today in that passage-- a trinity translation error.
Impossible? Why?
There are no commas in the Hebrew of that day, thus impossible.
Yes, I know. But there are commas in the English language so it is not impossible to insert them in a translated text. JW's would simply put the comma in a different place. In fact it almost essential in their translation whereas it is not in the former.
RightPunctuation obviously came later to enhance the understanding of the languages into which the scriptures were translated. Greek had none, nor did it have capitals or an indefinite article.
But Scripture does indicate otherwise. See below.I have already offered the reasons why we believe that the comma is misplaced by biased translators.
When Jesus said he was going to be "in the heart of the earth" for three days and nights as Jonah had been in the belly of the fish, then we must take him at his word. (Matt 12:38-40) He did not say that his body was in the tomb whilst his spirit went somewhere else.
God is a spirit is he not? Angels, demons are spirits, right? so there is such a thing as a conscious spirit not inhabiting a body? As for disembodied human spirits:There is no scripture that says that the spirit is a conscious part of man that leaves the body at death. That is a platonic notion, not part of Jewish teachings.
Is it?The "spirit" in man is the same spirit that is in animals.
Actually the Jews of Jesus day, at least the Pharisees did believe a conscious entity survived death.Jews had no belief in an immortal soul, therefor Jesus did not believe in such a thing.
What happened to his body then? The tomb was empty.Being in the tomb for three day and nights meant being dead for all that time. Then he was resurrected "in the spirit" or in a spiritual body.
He could not take his flesh to heaven so he did not take it back.
I think you have the wrong reference here. Lamsa is addressing the idiom of "let the dead bury the dead". In any event, I've got great respect for Lamsa but he doesn't always get things right.On the matter of the comma.....
EDIT: George M. Lamsa, an authority on Syrian (Aramaic) customs and languages, states: “According to the Aramaic manner of speech, the emphasis in this text is on the word ‘today’ and should read [as it does in the New World Translation], ‘Truly I say to you today, you will be with me in Paradise.’ . . . This is a characteristic of Oriental speech implying that the promise was made on a certain day and would surely be kept.”—Gospel Light from Aramaic on the Teachings of Jesus.”—Gospel Light.
I'll check those references out.The Hebrew Scriptures themselves provide numerous examples of this solemn idiom using “today.”—Zech. 9:12; Deut. 4:26, 39, and 40 other instances in the book of Deuteronomy alone.
But Scripture does indicate otherwise. See below.Jem said:When Jesus said he was going to be "in the heart of the earth" for three days and nights as Jonah had been in the belly of the fish, then we must take him at his word. (Matt 12:38-40) He did not say that his body was in the tomb whilst his spirit went somewhere else.
Before I tackle this point, which will require some detail, can I first ask if you have done any study on the original language meanings of the words "soul" (Heb., ne′phesh [נֶפֶשׁ]; Gr., psy·khe′ [ψυχή]) and "spirit" (Greek pneu′ma, Hebrew ru′ach)?God is a spirit is he not? Angels, demons are spirits, right? so there is such a thing as a conscious spirit not inhabiting a body? As for disembodied human spirits:
Some background to this scripture would be helpful, rather than just producing this account at random to suggest that Samuel's "spirit" was called up by a spirit medium.1Sa 28:13-14 And the king said to her, Do not be afraid. What did you see? And the woman said to Saul, I saw a spirit ascending out of the earth. So he said to her, What is his form? And she said, An old man is coming up, and he is covered with a mantle. And Saul perceived that it was Samuel, and he stooped with his face to the ground and bowed down.
Knowing what the "spirit" is will allow you to see what he was really saying.regarding Jesus Scripture says:
Mat 27:50 And Jesus cried out again with a loud voice, and yielded up His spirit.
Luk 23:46 And when Jesus had cried out with a loud voice, He said, Father, into Your hands I commit My spirit.' fn Having said this, He breathed His last.
I could give you much more than just these.
Ecc 3:21 Who knows the spirit of the sons of men, which goes upward, and the spirit of the animal, which goes down to the earth?
You will notice that Jesus routinely castigated the Pharisees because of their erroneous teachings....he called it "leaven"Actually the Jews of Jesus day, at least the Pharisees did believe a conscious entity survived death.
It was prophesied in Psalm 16:10 that Jesus' body would not be left in the tomb.What happened to his body then? The tomb was empty.
Yes sorry, I did post the wrong reference ...and I corrected it if you'll notice.I think you have the wrong reference here. Lamsa is addressing the idiom of "let the dead bury the dead". In any event, I've got great respect for Lamsa but he doesn't always get things right.
I'll check those references out.
I don't believe they do. Looking at scripture through the lens of Christendom's teachings you may see what you want to see....but the truth is otherwise as we discern it from the rest of the Bible.
Indeed I have.Before I tackle this point, which will require some detail, can I first ask if you have done any study on the original language meanings of the words "soul" (Heb., ne′phesh [נֶפֶשׁ]; Gr., psy·khe′ [ψυχή]) and "spirit" (Greek pneu′ma, Hebrew ru′ach)?
I understand the distinction. And I know that quite often, in the OT anyway, "soul" refers to any living thing (animal or human). But there are many exceptions. I give a link with them but this one particularly stands out:So many people have been led to believe that these terms are interchangeable, but they have a completely different meanings. There is no such thing as a disembodied "soul". The "spirit" is something else entirely.
OkaySome background to this scripture would be helpful, rather than just producing this account at random to suggest that Samuel's "spirit" was called up by a spirit medium.
King Saul at this point in his life, realized that he had been abandoned by God, so he turns to spiritism, which he knew was against the law of God and which he had, at the beginning, banned from his kingdom. Under cover of darkness he visits a surviving witch at Endor and tries to communicate through her with dead Samuel for information. Saul thus resorts to demonism. A demon impersonates Samuel to the witch of Endor, to her mind’s eye, and transmits through her a message of doom to King Saul. (1 Sam. 28:4-25)
At no time did Saul see or hear this 'spirit', it was only though the medium describing him and conveying his 'message'.
Okay, but we're probably already on the same page on thatKnowing what the "spirit" is will allow you to see what he was really saying.
I would like to go into some detail about this if that's OK. In another post once I have heard back a response to this one perhaps? It is so important to understand the difference between these terms. (soul and spirit)
Ah, but this contradicts what you said earlier:After describing in pictorial terms what it is like to age and die, Solomon then wrote..."Then the dust returns to the earth just as it happened to be and the spirit itself returns to the [true] God who gave it."
Again, knowing what this 'spirit' is will answer that question.
Since animals do not have a promise of everlasting life (they were designed with a finite life cycle) once they return to the dust, their 'spirit' is gone forever. It is buried in the dust with them.
But God is the one who promises to give the 'spirit' back to man in a resurrection. All future prospects for life are in his hands, so it is in a symbolic way that the spirit is received by God because he is the only one who can give it back. This pertains to Jesus too. His spirit could only be returned to him by his Father. Jesus did not raise himself...God raised him from the dead, returning his life to him.
sure but he also had commonalities with them and I think this is one.You will notice that Jesus routinely castigated the Pharisees because of their erroneous teachings....he called it "leaven"
Yes, I agree the ancient Jews held a different view from later Jews.You will also remember that Jesus said "a little leaven ferments the whole lump". The Jewish religious system by that time was basically corrupted. The ancient Jews had no such teaching from God's word. There is no conscious existence for the dead. (Eccl 9:5, 6, 10; Psalm 146:4)
Why could his body not simply be changed?It was prophesied in Psalm 16:10 that Jesus' body would not be left in the tomb.
Speaking of that prophesy by King David, in Acts 2:30-32 Peter says "Therefore, because he [King David] was a prophet and knew that God had sworn to him with an oath that he would seat one from the fruitage of his loins upon his throne, he saw beforehand and spoke concerning the resurrection of the Christ, that neither was he forsaken in Ha′des nor did his flesh see corruption. This Jesus God resurrected, of which fact we are all witnesses."
It was God who saw to it that Jesus' body would not see corruption or decompose in the grave. It must have been taken by God in an undisclosed manner.
I think this is probably speaking of the same sort of change. As Paul also speaks of in 1 Cor. 15.On that point, since the Bible teaches that those of Christ's disciples who survive till the end of the age will be transformed, "changed in the twinkling of an eye" what becomes of their body, do you think?
"For this is what we tell you by Jehovah’s word, that we the living who survive to the presence of the Lord shall in no way precede those who have fallen asleep [in death]; because the Lord himself will descend from heaven with a commanding call, with an archangel’s voice and with God’s trumpet, and those who are dead in union with Christ will rise first. Afterward we the living who are surviving will, together with them, be caught away in clouds to meet the Lord in the air; and thus we shall always be with [the] Lord. Consequently keep comforting one another with these words." (1 Thess 4:15-18)
YesWhat about those 'saints' who have already gone to heaven...where are their bodies? Are they not buried in the ground? Long decomposed?
Hmm, good question there.If they are to die and go to heaven in the same death and resurrection as our Lord...why was there a body left behind when there was no body of Jesus left behind?
I think even you might disagree with some of his interpretations!Yes sorry, I did post the wrong reference ...and I corrected it if you'll notice.
George Lamsa is as respected a scholar as any who might disagree with him. He did not always confirm Christendom's translations as correct...that was bound to put him off side with a few people.
I understand the distinction. And I know that quite often, in the OT anyway, "soul" refers to any living thing (animal or human). But there are many exceptions. I give a link with them but this one particularly stands out:
Gen 35:18 And so it was, as her soul was departing (for she died), that she called his name Ben-Oni; but his father called him Benjamin.
The soul is the whole person. Adam was a a soul....he was not given one. The soul is the entire sum of the person....body, spirit, personality, traits and talents.you can look at more here where "soul" does not simply refer to a living thing but is something in itself:
BLB - Gen 35: Book of Beginnings - Genesis 35 (Blue Letter Bible: NKJV - New King James Version)
Jesus' spirit was his lifeforce sustained by breathing. This is what brought Adam to life...the breath (spirit) that God breathed into him and made him into a soul.Ah, but this contradicts what you said earlier:
When Jesus said he was going to be "in the heart of the earth" for three days and nights as Jonah had been in the belly of the fish, then we must take him at his word. (Matt 12:38-40) He did not say that his body was in the tomb whilst his spirit went somewhere else.
There was very little of the Pharisaical teachings that were intact.sure but he also had commonalities with them and I think this is one.
Perhaps it was transformed...we simply do not know. Just that God had said in his word that Jesus' flesh would not see corruption. I guess there is always the possibility that God wanted to prevent the possibility of his body being used for false religious purposes. Look at the "relic" worship practised by the Catholic church to see what I mean.Why could his body not simply be changed?
Yes, he speaks about the body that they will receive in heaven...just like Jesus' spiritual, immortal and incorruptible body. Only those who are chosen for heaven will be granted this life.I think this is probably speaking of the same sort of change. As Paul also speaks of in 1 Cor. 15.
Yes it is...any answers?Hmm, good question there.
Perhaps, but he knows his Aramaic. Who can dispute that? We have used his findings in our publications.I think even you might disagree with some of his interpretations!
O dear, did I miss one again? :sorry1:Now don't forget to address my other previous response: http://www.religiousforums.com/forum/3605646-post115.html
Yes, but what I am saying is that does not mean he was just an ordinary man either. There are many views in between. Even as a JW you don't think he was an ordinary man but an incarnation of the archangel Michael, right? This was a view that goes back a long ways in Christian theology and was held by the Ebionites. Then you have Arius who only quibbled over an iota, homoisousius vs. homoousius. Then you have Adoptioonist views, Modalist views, and so forth. What you DON'T find is any group of early Christians claiming Jesus was just an ordinary man in every way like other human beings. All those groups acknowledged some kind of divinity present within him.
Sounds a bit similar really. So you are not really a trinitarian then?As for myself I take the Gnostic view that Jesus was an aeon. In this sense an aeon is something which proceeds directly from the Father. That does not make the Son equal to or the same as the Father. It does mean they have the same essence and nature. Just as I am not equal to or the same as my father but we share the same nature and essence. There are other analogies we can make but I think this is what the Bible teaches.
Yes, I am learning about all sorts of beliefs and ideas from the forums.I'm just trying to point out that there are many ways at looking at this that don't fall neatly into the categories of unitarianism or trinitarianism. Even in Judaism we find in the philosophy of Philo a kind of multiplicity in the Godhead. These kinds of ideas had an impact in the development of early Christianity.
You won't get an argument from me about that as long as "divine" doesn't mean that he was God Almighty. The term "god" (theos) is not used exclusively of the Father. It means 'a mighty or powerful one' so no one could deny that Jesus' fits the description.Okay, but... Trinity - Wikipedia, the free encyclopediaThe Ante-Nicene Fathers affirmed Christ's deity and spoke of "Father, Son and Holy Spirit", even though their language is not that of the traditional doctrine as formalised in the fourth century.The trinitarian doctrine, as presently formulated, is not found in the Bible and is contradicted by it, sure. But there is plenty in the Bible that points to Jesus' divinity.
Would you like to cite them and we'll have a closer look? Remember that the Jews did not believe in a conscious existence after death...."When they breathe their last, they return to the earth, and all their plans die with them." (Psalm 146:4 NLT)Wait, I don't think I made that claim, did I? But there are certainly many passages which indicate a soul survives the death of the body and has conscious experiences.
Well, again we don't get to tell God what he can and cannot do...that is his prerogative to tell us what to do. There is no one more forgiving that Jehovah is.Because we are told to love and forgive our enemies when God does not?
The laws in Israel had capital offenses. The death penalty was the highest for any serious crime. The Father authorized his executioners to take the life of someone who did not value the life of others. Justice demands "eye for eye, tooth for tooth, life for life" We all have God's sense of justice....it is not something that should be swayed by sentiment, though it can be tempered with mercy if it is warranted.Sure, that follows. I just don't think the Father does so.
Well since the virgins only woke up around a hundred years ago, when the bridegroom arrived, it was only burned once it was put in their lamps. The foolish ones are still looking for somewhere to buy some. :sad4:A 2000 year supply of oil is a lot of oil!
You're cherry picking again. Either God's word is God's word or it is the word of men...you have to choose...can't have a foot in both camps my friend. :no:He couldn't. I'm not disputing how that passage is to be interpreted. I'm just saying we don't know of Jesus said that or if that is just the words of the evangelist.
Most translation just have "today" not "this very day", remember that there was no punctuation in the Greek so the translators put it where they thought it should go. But the rest of the Bible says that where they placed it can't be right. Was Jesus in paradise that day? No he was in his tomb...dead. He did not go back to heaven for 40 days so how could he have been with the man in paradise that day? He was not a chosen one...he was a criminal.Well I'm not talking about punctuation but the meaning of σήμερον (sēmeron) as "today, this very day".
ETA: OK, now I get what you mean. You are reading it as "Truly I tell you today, you will be with me in Paradise." I just don't buy that especially with the intensification "this very day".
Please show me scripture that says so. Did Jesus say that "he" was going to be in the 'heart of the earth for three days and nights"...or did he say that his body would be in there but his spirit would be occupied elsewhere?His body was, not his spirit.
Please show me the contradiction and we'll see if an explanation can be found elsewhere in scripture. That is usually the best way to tackle things.Well I'll just point out that Luke's version of events is contradicted by Matthew anyway. So I won't make a case on it.
Here is an intersting quote from The New Catholic Encyclopedia: “Nepes [ne′phesh] is a term of far greater extension than our ‘soul,’ signifying life (Ex 21.23; Dt 19.21) and its various vital manifestations: breathing (Gn 35.18; Jb 41.13[21]), blood [Gn 9.4; Dt 12.23; Ps 140(141).8], desire (2 Sm 3.21; Prv 23.2). The soul in the O[ld] T[estament] means not a part of man, but the whole man—man as a living being. Similarly, in the N[ew] T[estament] it signifies human life: the life of an individual, conscious subject (Mt 2.20; 6.25; Lk 12.22-23; 14.26; Jn 10.11, 15, 17; 13.37).”—1967, Vol. XIII, p. 467."
"Soul" is a term that Jews understood in a vastly different way to Christendom.
The use of this one Hebrew word "nephesh", in many different contexts helps us to ascertain the basic idea inherent in the word as the Bible writers used it, namely, that it is a person, an individual, or a lower creature; or, the life that a person or an animal enjoys as such. This is totally different from what the ancient Egyptians, Babylonians, Greeks and Romans religiously and philosophically called a soul.
In the Christian Greek Scriptures the Greek word psy·khe′ occurs by itself 102 times, first in Matt 2:20. This includes Eph 6:6 and Col 3:23, where it is in the expression “whole-souled.” Additionally it is used in many compound Greek words such as in Phil 2:2, 19; 1Thess 5:14.
The New World Translation consistently renders both ne′phesh and psy·khe′ as “soul.” This uniform rendering by the same English word proves very enlightening as to how the inspired writers used ne′phesh and psy·khe′ and what properties they ascribed to them.
The example you used is interesting when you compare it to say Ex 4:19.
"And the Lord said unto Moses in Midian, Go, return into Egypt: for all the men are dead which sought thy life.[ne′phesh]" (KJV)
But such a translation only makes sense if one understands the thinking of that time. I think confusion sets in when we think of "life" according to our modern understanding and try to insert that back into this ancient understanding. When we say someone "lost their life" today we mean their body died. According to this way of thinking there is no more "life" when the body is dead. I don't think that is the way the ancient Hebrews understood it. They did not think of the physical body as being alive but rather that life was in the physical body. When life, or soul, departed, the physical body died.If the word "nephesh" had been translated "soul" in that verse, you would see it's connection to Gen 35:18.
If the word "life" had been use there, it would have read, " And it came to pass, as her ne′phesh [LIFE] was in departing, (for she died) that she called his name Ben-oni: but his father called him Benjamin."
You see the translation is the key to understanding. If it is not faithful to the original language, then you can be misled. This had nothing to do with a "soul" as a separate part of the person leaving the body at death. Rachel's life was ebbing away as she named her son.
Yes, that's close but not quite. Nefesh is not the body; it's the life within the body. But it is not something given one per se; it's the result of spirit animating the body. But it's important to understand it is something in itself. It's not simply a description of a living thing. The ancient Hebrews even precisely identified it as the blood which is why they are so many prohibitions regarding blood in OT law.The soul is the whole person. Adam was a a soul....he was not given one. The soul is the entire sum of the person....body, spirit, personality, traits and talents.
Yes. That's why I would not contend that it is immortal if that means indestructible. But we shouldn't confuse that with the idea that it can survive the death of the physical body.But the soul is mortal...it dies. (Ezek 18:4)
Right.Jesus' spirit was his lifeforce sustained by breathing. This is what brought Adam to life...the breath (spirit) that God breathed into him and made him into a soul.
But as you would have it his soul was basically recreated when he was resurrected. That does not seem right. Nothing in Scripture suggests that nor that Jesus was in an unconscious state while his body lay in the tomb.When Jesus yielded up his spirit, he breathed his last breath and expired.
He didn't go anywhere for three days because he was dead. He was not resurrected until God raised him back to life three days later. He was given a spiritual body so that he could return to heaven, but he stayed on earth for 40 days to strengthen his disciples. There is no mention of him staying with them after his resurrection even though they had been his constant companions for three and a half years.
He was not raised in a physical body but could materialize when it was necessary.
Not yetYes it is...any answers?
Actually some do. Lamsa was a native speaker of Aramaic but a different dialect than the one Jesus spoke.Perhaps, but he knows his Aramaic. Who can dispute that?
Yes, I can agree so far.What I am trying to get you to acknowledge (I'm not sure if I have been successful) is that the Hebrew word nefesh has many layers of meaning. It's not correct to say it is simply a synonym for a living being if by that one means merely a functioning physical body. A physical body is simply dead matter unless it is animated by spirit (I'm speaking according to the ancient view and not scientifically). It is the interaction of spirit and matter which creates the soul. So a soul is the living conscious being within the physical body.
Yes, agreed again.Nefesh also connotes certain aspects of man's inner being such as appetite, desire, emotion, passion, ie the seat of emotion and even the mind, the rational aspect.
But such a translation only makes sense if one understands the thinking of that time. I think confusion sets in when we think of "life" according to our modern understanding and try to insert that back into this ancient understanding. When we say someone "lost their life" today we mean their body died. According to this way of thinking there is no more "life" when the body is dead. I don't think that is the way the ancient Hebrews understood it. They did not think of the physical body as being alive but rather that life was in the physical body. When life, or soul, departed, the physical body died.
Yes, that's close but not quite. Nefesh is not the body; it's the life within the body. But it is not something given one per se; it's the result of spirit animating the body. But it's important to understand it is something in itself. It's not simply a description of a living thing. The ancient Hebrews even precisely identified it as the blood which is why they are so many prohibitions regarding blood in OT law.
Yes. That's why I would not contend that it is immortal if that means indestructible. But we shouldn't confuse that with the idea that it can survive the death of the physical body.
Jesus was no ordinary human. He was perfect...but his life existed in heaven before he came to earth. Ours didn't. That means that his life was transferred from the spirit realm to the earthly one, and back again. Same life...same person...different bodies. But in order for Jesus to pay the ransom, he had to be the exact equivalent of Adam. A perfect life had to be offered for a perfect life to pay the debt that Adam left for his children.But as you would have it his soul was basically recreated when he was resurrected. That does not seem right. Nothing in Scripture suggests that.
Let's go back and revisit something we discussed earlier. Saul's encounter with the ghost of Samuel. You say this was a demon impersonating Samuel but nothing in the text suggests that. Saul did have direct communication with Samuel and Samuel relayed information from the Lord to him. That does not sound like something a demon would do.[/COLOR][/COLOR]
Carry on......I'll respond to your other posts as I have time.
I don't think there is any question about whether Jesus was divine or not. He was the son of God...how could a divine being not produce a divine son?
InterestingAt 1 Thessalonians 4:16 the voice of the resurrected Lord Jesus Christ is described as being that of an archangel, suggesting that he is, in fact, himself the archangel. If Michael was an inferior being to God's son, then why would he be said to have such a voice? That would be tantamount of giving Pavarotti the voice of Tiny Tim
No need to convince me. We are basically on the same page here. But I do believe the Son shares the same nature and essence as the Father and I don't think you would agree with that?John 1:18 describes the Word (Logos) as "the only begotten god". We know that he is "like" his Father and that he is "only begotten" so this is proof that Jesus is not God because God is not "begotten" but his "firstborn" son is. (Col 1:15, 16) Monogenes means an only child in every sense of the word. "Firstborn" indicates the first child in a family. God has other "sons" but none were brought into existence like this one. He is unique.
Again, very interesting. I have a better understanding of why you believe what you do now. Thanks.The book of Revelation (12:7, 10, 12) specifically mentions Michael in connection with the establishment of God’s Kingdom and links this event with trouble for the earth: “And war broke out in heaven: Michael and his angels battled with the dragon, and the dragon and its angels battled. And I heard a loud voice in heaven say: ‘Now have come to pass the salvation and the power and the kingdom of our God and the authority of his Christ, because the accuser of our brothers has been hurled down . . . On this account be glad, you heavens and you who reside in them! Woe for the earth and for the sea.’”
Jesus Christ is later depicted as leading the heavenly armies in war against the nations of the earth. (Rev 19:11-16) This would mean a period of distress for them, which would logically be included in the “time of distress” that is associated with Michael’s standing up. (Dan 12:1)
Since the Son of God is to battle the nations, it is only reasonable that he was the one who with his angels earlier battled against the superhuman dragon, Satan the Devil, and his angels. We have no trinity to fall over do it just makes sense to us.
I suppose it depends on how you define that term. I believe in the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit and that's the trinity. But I don't believe the Son is co-equal and co-eternal with the Father as stated in the Athanasian Creed. That is definitely not a biblical idea. Jesus definitely referred to the Father as his God as I am sure you are aware.Sounds a bit similar really. So you are not really a trinitarian then?
I like to define "aeon" as a spacetime dimension. The first aeon was the Father. That is to say that spacetime dimension consisted of the Father only. The Son was generated from the Father which makes the Son the second aeon. The Spirit is the energy generated betwen those two so now we have a third aeon. And so on it goes. In this aeon, the one we inhabit, there is a multiplicity of many forms that include both spirit and matter.I had to look up "aeon" as I am not familiar with it.
Quote from Wiki...
"Matthew 28:20: “…I am with you always, to the end of the age” (NRSV), the word “age” being a translation of aion. Rendering aion to indicate eternality in this verse would result in the contradictory phrase “end of eternity”, so the question arises whether it should ever be so.[3] Proponents of Universal Reconciliation point out that this has significant implications for the problem of hell"
Aeon - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
Sounds a bit complicated. I don't see Jesus called an aeon in scripture. But I am assured that he has been "with" his Father from "the beginning".....since God is an eternal being and had no "beginning", this must refer to the beginning of creation.
Me tooYes, I am learning about all sorts of beliefs and ideas from the forums.
Exactly. That is why Gnostics acknowledge the existence of many gods, many divine beings. Satan is the god of this world. What defines "god" is the relationship between that being and those below it. So I can say Jesus is my god, and I can say the Father is my god, without contradiction. But the highest form of deity is the Father.You won't get an argument from me about that as long as "divine" doesn't mean that he was God Almighty. The term "god" (theos) is not used exclusively of the Father. It means 'a mighty or powerful one' so no one could deny that Jesus' fits the description.
Right. I'm not saying the spirit is a conscious entity. It's just an aspect of our being. And I think this is how the ancient Hebrews saw it as well.Would you like to cite them and we'll have a closer look? Remember that the Jews did not believe in a conscious existence after death...."When they breathe their last, they return to the earth, and all their plans die with them." (Psalm 146:4 NLT)
Now from the NASB..."His spirit departs, he returns to the earth;
In that very day his thoughts perish."
The departing "spirit" is said to be the last breath leaving the body, but certainly not a conscious entity. Thoughts perish.
I acknowledge that the ancient Hebrews did not believe in a conscious existence after death. At least not one like this conscious existence. This might be helpful to look at to get a full glimpse of the ancient belief:This is confirmed by Solomon..."For the living know they will die; but the dead do not know anything, nor have they any longer a reward, for their memory is forgotten. Indeed their love, their hate and their zeal have already perished, and they will no longer have a share in all that is done under the sun."
"Whatever your hand finds to do, do it with all your might; for there is no activity or planning or knowledge or wisdom in Sheol [the grave] where you are going." (Eccl 9:5, 6, 10)
Well, again we don't get to tell God what he can and cannot do...that is his prerogative to tell us what to do. There is no one more forgiving that Jehovah is.
Do you remember Jesus parable of the unforgiving slave? (Matt 18:21-35) This well illustrates why God cannot forgive some. He wants to as this story shows but when there is no repentance or forgiveness of others, there can be no forgiveness for the wicked.
Well here I must inject the Gnostic perspective. We don't recognize that everything attributed to God in the OT is the Word of the Father but rather comes from other sources.The laws in Israel had capital offenses. The death penalty was the highest for any serious crime. The Father authorized his executioners to take the life of someone who did not value the life of others. Justice demands "eye for eye, tooth for tooth, life for life" We all have God's sense of justice....it is not something that should be swayed by sentiment, though it can be tempered with mercy if it is warranted.
Well, okayWell since the virgins only woke up around a hundred years ago, when the bridegroom arrived, it was only burned once it was put in their lamps. The foolish ones are still looking for somewhere to buy some. :sad4:
Well, I refer to the Gnostic perspective above. Plus I would again encourage you to do a word study on "Word of God" to see it is not a reference to the Bible. But actually in this instance I am merely saying that it is difficult to separate the actual words of Jesus from those of the gospel writer because again there is no punctuation in Greek.You're cherry picking again. Either God's word is God's word or it is the word of men...you have to choose...can't have a foot in both camps my friend. :no:
I can wrap my head around what you are saying and concluding. But "this very day" is the exact translation from the Greek. When you put it all together, even without punctuation...Most translation just have "today" not "this very day", remember that there was no punctuation in the Greek so the translators put it where they thought it should go. But the rest of the Bible says that where they placed it can't be right.
Mat 27:38-44 Then two robbers were crucified with Him, one on the right and another on the left. And those who passed by blasphemed Him, wagging their heads and saying, You who destroy the temple and build it in three days, save Yourself! If You are the Son of God, come down from the cross. Likewise the chief priests also, mocking with the scribes and elders, said, He saved others; Himself He cannot save. If He is the King of Israel, let Him now come down from the cross, and we will believe Him." He trusted in God; let Him deliver Him now if He will have Him; for He said, I am the Son of God.  Even the robbers who were crucified with Him reviled Him with the same thing.Please show me the contradiction and we'll see if an explanation can be found elsewhere in scripture. That is usually the best way to tackle things.
Truly I tell you, today you will be with me in paradise.Impossible? Why?
This is where the argument begins to unravel. You seem to be attributing more to the word "soul" than what the scriptures say and what the ancient Jews believed.
Well I think we covered this already, no?What is resurrection to your understanding? What did the Jews understand resurrection to mean? What was their definition of death based entirely on the word of a God, without influence from other religious cultures?
Frankly I think you make a strong case for what you believe. How's that?When we see resurrections recounted in the Bible, what do we see? Take a very famous example...Lazarus. The account in John 11 is very interesting if you read it carefully. Jesus is first of all informed that his friend is very ill and has been summoned by the family, knowing that Jesus can make him well. Jesus does not respond to the request, but purposefully remains where he is in order for Lazarus to pass away. (v 4, 5)
The conversation with his disciples on the road to Lazarus' house was also interesting.
From v 11..."After he said these things, he added: “Laz′a·rus our friend has fallen asleep, but I am traveling there to awaken him.” The disciples then said to him: “Lord, if he is sleeping, he will get well.” Jesus, however, had spoken about his death. But they imagined he was speaking about taking rest in sleep. Then Jesus said to them plainly: “Laz′a·rus has died, and I rejoice for your sake that I was not there, so that you may believe. But let us go to him.”
Lazarus was clearly dead, but Jesus said he was "sleeping". That term "sleeping in death" was also used by Paul. If someone is awake somewhere else, can they be said to be sleeping? Are those who sleep aware of what is going on around them or how long they have been sleeping, once they are awakened?
When Jesus called Lazarus out of his tomb, he had been dead for four days. No doubt his body would have begun to decompose in the middle eastern heat. His sister said that by that time his corpse would smell. (v 39)
But out came Lazarus still clothed in his burial wrappings. Jesus instructed them to "loose him and let him go" (v 44)
Where had Lazarus been for four days?
If he had been somewhere blissful and happy as a righteous man, why would Jesus bring him back to this life, only to get sick or old and die again?
What advantage was there for Lazarus?
Where did Lazarus say he had been? If he had been in a wonderful place why was there no such expression when he came out of the tomb? There is nothing on record about Lazarus being alive somewhere else. He was dead in his tomb, awaiting "a resurrection on the last day" according to Martha. (V 24) What did she understand the resurrection to be...and when did she expect it to take place?
Read the account and tell me your thoughts.
That reminds me of what Buddhists say And it is certainly harmonious with a scientific view of death as well.The life within the body is possible only because we breathe. The heart beats carrying oxygenated blood from our lungs to the rest of our body.
The spirit (breath) of life departs or "goes out" in the same way a candle or light "goes out". It doesn't leave the room...it is extinguished, waiting for it to be turned back on or relit. This is what happens with the spirit. Once extinguished, the physical body dies.
OkayIt returns to the dust and not a single molecule of it is required for the resurrection. God will re-create the bodies of resurrected ones, returning the breath that was lost when they died. He will re-created that individual with all his traits and memories. They are all stored in his own memory, which is infinite.
The reason why humans get so hung up with the concept of continuing life, is that we have no programming for death. It was never meant to happen, so our normal expectation is to go on living. God has placed "eternity in the hearts of men" Solomon wrote, so we see death as a foreign concept. Aging is a state of body, not a state of mind. Ask any older person who enjoys a measure of health if they feel any old in their minds? Most will tell you they feel exactly the same as when they were young. It was only physically that sin affected man's lifespan. Ageing occurs outside...not inside.
Believing that a conscious part of us lives on after death is not what God told Adam. (Gen 3:19)
What confuses me is that you believe Jesus pre-existed as Michael, a conscious spirit being with no physical body. Yet when he takes on a body and dies he is no longer a conscious spirit being. How do you make sense of that?I believe we shouldn't confuse everlasting life with immortality. There is a distinct difference. Only spirit beings can be immortal. Humans rely on many external things to keep living....breathing is just one of them. It is part of being mortal.
Jesus was no ordinary human. He was perfect...but his life existed in heaven before he came to earth. Ours didn't. That means that his life was transferred from the spirit realm to the earthly one, and back again. Same life...same person...different bodies. But in order for Jesus to pay the ransom, he had to be the exact equivalent of Adam. A perfect life had to be offered for a perfect life to pay the debt that Adam left for his children.
Jesus had to die in every human respect to fulfil his commission as redeemer.
It was Jesus who said he would be in the heart of the earth for three days and nights. What do you believe death to be? What did the Jews understand death to be...life in a conscious state somewhere else? :no:
I understand what you are saying but I think that is reading into that text.You forget satan's favorite tactic....he "transforms himself into an angel of light". He is the master of deception after all. Do you not wonder why God forbade his people to communicate with spirits? (Deut 18:10-12) They are deceptive, wanting to perpetuate the very first lie that satan told Eve...."you surely will not die"... Do you see what he is doing?
Well I think we covered this already, no?
I know it made perfect sense to me when I heard it. :yes:Frankly I think you make a strong case for what you believe. How's that?
But overall, I think the Bible presents different ideas that can't really be totally harmonized. I know because I tried by darnedest to do so in the past. I've let that go now. I think this issue is one of those things.
This is why we have four gospels. Each has details that the others do not include, making for a well rounded out story. Some news media have several researchers working on one story, each gleaning information to add to the overall account. I would be more inclined to believe four people than just one. It makes for more reliability ans scope than just one account. Three of the gospel writers were eye witnesses to the things they wrote.As regards this particular story I have to be honest and say I find it very hard to believe it. Raising someone from death who has been dead for four days is a pretty dramatic miracle. Why do none of the other evangelists even mention it? Wouldn't it be talked about and be common knowledge throughout the early Christian community?
Well, you see, I have to correlate all these things with what the Bible says...and I have. The Bible gives us an explanation for these happenings. Near death experiences have been explained by medical science. Since the Bible has no evidence for a conscious part of man that exists after death, the medical explanation makes sense. The dying brain is flooded with chemicals which can induce hallucinations. Not everyone has these experiences you know.I should also explain that the reason I believe in a conscious afterlife is not really based on anything the Bible has to say on the subject. It has more to do with evidence from near death experiences, past life memories, and paranormal activity.
That is a bit ambiguous actually.I think the soul is the core of our being. What makes us unique from someone else. Something like the personality but deeper than that. I think it survives the death of the body but I would not say that the soul is actually what is conscious. Rather we are conscious of our soul. If that makes any sense.
I don't believe that 'ghosts' are the spirits of the departed dead. There is no consciousness in death, so the spirits are either demons or angels. I believe that they are demons because angels never appear as 'spirits' or apparitions...in the Bible they appear in human form or in divinely inspired dreams. The word "ghost" is actually from a German word "geist" meaning "spirit". The connotation of the word has been warped by Christendom. By referring to the "Holy Ghost" they try to give 'personhood' to God's spirit. It isn't a person. :no:I believe many different fates await an individual soul. Some souls continue to wander the earth in disembodied form, what we call "ghosts". Some are reincarnated back on earth, and some are reborn into different aeons.
Yes I do....but did you realize that the process of cell renewal in the human body means that every seven years, there is not a cell in your body that is part of the original "you"? Our bodies are regenerating constantly, but due to sin our bodies, cells stop renewing as vigorously and the process slows down more and more as we age. This what causes aging and death. Cell renewal was designed originally to be a perpetual process.Going back to Lazarus think of what would need to happen. His flesh, including his brain, would be rotting away. It would need to be restored, new cells regenerated. But really that means a new person, a sort of clone of the other. That is what you are saying happens in that resurrection. But unless something like a soul is returned to your body you would not really be you. See what I mean?
It harmonizes with what the Bible says.That reminds me of what Buddhists say And it is certainly harmonious with a scientific view of death as well.Jay said:The spirit (breath) of life departs or "goes out" in the same way a candle or light "goes out". It doesn't leave the room...it is extinguished, waiting for it to be turned back on or relit. This is what happens with the spirit. Once extinguished, the physical body dies.
Since Jesus' life on earth was unique, we have to understand what God did in order to save Adam's offspring. No imperfect human could offer a ransom to God for Adam's life, so an equivalent life had to come from outside the now imperfect human race to cancel the debt. God's law stated "eye for eye, tooth for tooth, life for life". The exact equivalent of Adam's life was the price. No other human could pay it.What confuses me is that you believe Jesus pre-existed as Michael, a conscious spirit being with no physical body. Yet when he takes on a body and dies he is no longer a conscious spirit being. How do you make sense of that?
Nazz said:]Let's go back and revisit something we discussed earlier. Saul's encounter with the ghost of Samuel. You say this was a demon impersonating Samuel but nothing in the text suggests that. Saul did have direct communication with Samuel and Samuel relayed information from the Lord to him. That does not sound like something a demon would do.
I hope you are enjoying this interchange as much as I am....Hey, lookie there. I am all caught up on my responses! OK, your turn!
Actually it is the same principle though. We are told to forgive when someone seeks to be forgiven. And we will be forgiven to the extent we are willing to forgive others. That is what that parable addresses. The same applies with God. God is always willing to forgive those who seek forgiveness.
God acknowledges that there will be those who will not repent even when given opportunity to do so. What do you make of Jesus' words at Matt 24:36-39?Really it about our acknowledgement we have done wrong. We can't spiritually progress until we have done that. That's repentance in a nutshell.
I can't do that for reasons I have already stated. God's word is God's word. If that is not the case, then there is no truth.Well here I must inject the Gnostic perspective. We don't recognize that everything attributed to God in the OT is the Word of the Father but rather comes from other sources.
I would say it isn't "always" a reference to the scriptures. But clearly as "The Word" (Logos) Jesus carries this title because he is Jehovah's spokesman. He is the bearer of God's word to others.Well, I refer to the Gnostic perspective above. Plus I would again encourage you to do a word study on "Word of God" to see it is not a reference to the Bible.
I am surprised that you believe there is a difference.But actually in this instance I am merely saying that it is difficult to separate the actual words of Jesus from those of the gospel writer because again there is no punctuation in Greek.
Did you look up the references in Deuteronomy? It was indeed a Jewish figure of speech to make a statement "today".I can wrap my head around what you are saying and concluding. But "this very day" is the exact translation from the Greek. When you put it all together, even without punctuation...
Assuredly I say to you this very day you will be with Me in Paradise.
...it certainly sounds like he is talking about the man being in Paradise that very day. But I acknowledge it could be read differently.
I don't see that as a contradiction. I see that as a lack of detail. Both robbers were ridiculing Jesus at first, but one it seems, was moved to change his mind. Perhaps because Jesus' demeanor? It doesn't say.Mat 27:38-44: Then two robbers were crucified with Him, one on the right and another on the left. And those who passed by blasphemed Him, wagging their heads and saying, You who destroy the temple and build it in three days, save Yourself! If You are the Son of God, come down from the cross. Likewise the chief priests also, mocking with the scribes and elders, said, He saved others; Himself He cannot save. If He is the King of Israel, let Him now come down from the cross, and we will believe Him." He trusted in God; let Him deliver Him now if He will have Him; for He said, I am the Son of God.  Even the robbers who were crucified with Him reviled Him with the same thing.