• Welcome to Religious Forums, a friendly forum to discuss all religions in a friendly surrounding.

    Your voice is missing! You will need to register to get access to the following site features:
    • Reply to discussions and create your own threads.
    • Our modern chat room. No add-ons or extensions required, just login and start chatting!
    • Access to private conversations with other members.

    We hope to see you as a part of our community soon!

How Long Can you Live?

JayJayDee

Avid JW Bible Student
”Theophany” in the sense of the visitation of the Magi was originally lumped together into one big feast day with Christmas and the Circumcision of Christ. I should note that it’s the Western Christian practice to use the name “Theophany” for the Visitation of the Magi. Christmas was split off from Theophany and moved to December 25th, so the pagan converts to Christianity wouldn’t be tempted to engage in their old pagan celebrations. This moving of Christmas to December 25th was originally met with quite a bit of resistance by the Fathers, but it did its job—instead of partaking in pagan festivities, converts now had a safe Christian alternative. So rather than being a pagan influence, Christmas was actually established as a feast day to defend against pagan influence!

Interesting explanation Shiranui117, but can I ask where the command is in scripture to make feast days of these events? Where are we commended to celebrate Christ's birth? The Magi's visit? His resurrection etc....?

The feast days in Israel were specifically commanded by Jehovah and every detail was supplied by God for the celebration of such events. This is no doubt because when man decides to hold a celebration off his own bat, the danger exists of offending Jehovah by introducing things that appeal to man but do not appeal to God. Remember the golden calf? It was held as "a festival to the Lord" who delivered them out of Egypt. It wasn't what they called it that was the problem, but rather that they used an image borrowed from the Egyptians in their choice of a representative for their god, thereby practicing idolatry. The punishment was severe.

When we Eastern Christians say, “Theophany” we refer to the Feast of Christ’s baptism. This feast should be straightforward enough as to its origins.
Can I ask again, where such a feast day is commanded by God in scripture? There is no such celebration mentioned in the NT, so it was absent, along with the aforementioned feast days from the practices of the first century Bible writers.

The service is celebrated with the standard Divine Liturgy of St. John Chrysostom
I cannot accept anything as "divine" when it didn't exist prior to the 4th century. This is when the apostasy became full blown, when Christendom was born with the Roman Church under Constantine, (who I believe was a pagan sun worshipper all his life.)
The church paints Constantine as a hero, but history is not so kind to him.

Constantine, Divine Emperor of the Christian Golden Age - Jonathan Bardill - Google Books

File:Apollo1.JPG - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia

and afterwards, there are many prayers for the blessing of water. In many Orthodox countries, the congregation would go to the local river/lake, and the priest would throw a cross into the river at the blessing of the waters. Then all the men would jump in the river and try to be the one to fetch the cross—and all this in winter! :D
Ah, now I know why the Greeks Orthodox believers do this in conjunction with "the blessing of the fleet." They also throw a crucifix into the water for retrieval.

The Feast of the Transfiguration (see Matthew 17) is also occasionally called “Theophany” as well.
My goodness! You guys seem to have a feast day for everything ! :eek:
Once again, show me the command in scripture.....
 

JayJayDee

Avid JW Bible Student
Concerning the Magi.....

Zoroastrian astrologers/astronomers who believed that the Star was the fulfillment of a Persian prophecy regarding a king. They visited Christ a while after He was born, but not on the day/night of His birth.
The Imperial Bible-Dictionary (Vol. II, p. 139) says: “According to Herodotus the magi were a tribe of the Medes, who professed to interpret dreams, and had the official charge of sacred rites . . . they were, in short, the learned and priestly class, and having, as was supposed, the skill of deriving from books and the observation of the stars a supernatural insight into coming events . . . Later investigations tend rather to make Babylon than Media and Persia the centre of full-blown magianism. ‘Originally, the Median priests were not called magi . . . From the Chaldeans, however, they received the name of magi for their priestly caste, and it is thus we are to explain what Herodotus says of the magi being a Median tribe...."

Justin Martyr, Origen, and Tertullian, when reading Matthew 2:1, thought of ma′goi as astrologers. Tertullian wrote, (“On Idolatry,” IX): “We know the mutual alliance of magic and astrology. The interpreters of the stars, then, were the first . . . to present Him [Jesus] ‘gifts.’” (The Ante-Nicene Fathers, 1957, Vol. III, p. 65)

With the correct identification of the Magi as Babylonian astrologers, we have to ask,"would God use pagan worshippers of false gods to identify the location of his precious new-born son to a wicked king who wanted to do away with him?"

It was by ascertaining the "when" of the star's appearance from the Magi, with the "where" from the Jewish priests that Herod made his murderous plan to do away with the infant Jesus. (Matt 2:4-8)

The question must then be rightfully asked..."who sent the star to guide them to where Jesus was?" It was no ordinary star for it came to a stop above where the young child was. (Matt 2:9-12) It could quite easily have led them directly to him, but it didn't....it led them to Herod.

Incidentally, Jesus was no longer a new-born baby by the time of their arrival, but a "young child" living in a house with his parents. (Matt 2:11) There is also no mention of their number, so even though there were three gifts, it doesn't mention three men.

There was obviously no evil intent on the part of the Magi who were just following their own traditional customs. God foiled Herod's plot by warning the Magi to return home by another way.

Nevertheless, many babies were put to death by Herod's men on account of them being directed to Jerusalem first and to bringing Jesus' birth to the attention of a wicked and jealous king. God would never be responsible for something like that.
 

JayJayDee

Avid JW Bible Student
See, this is the problem I have: Christianity is the fulfillment of Judaism, not its replacement. It is only natural that we Christians would inherit many Jewish patterns of worship.
That is correct. It was not difficult for the first Jewish Christians to conduct orderly, educational Bible study meetings, because they had the basic pattern in the synagogues with which they were familiar. There were many similarities. In the Jewish synagogue, as also in the Christian congregation, there was no set-apart priesthood or clergyman who did virtually all the talking. In the synagogue, sharing in the reading and in the exposition was open to any devout Jew. In the Christian congregation, all were to make public declaration and to incite to love and fine works, but in an orderly way. (Heb 10:23-25)

In the Jewish synagogue, women did not teach or exercise authority over men; neither did they do so in the Christian assembly. 1Corinthians 14 gives instructions for the meetings of the Christian congregation, and it can be seen that they were very similar to synagogue procedure. (1Cor 14:31-35; 1Tim 2:11, 12)

Unless your “worship service” consists entirely of lectures, it’s based off the Jewish pattern of worship: Singing Psalms, using standardized prayers, praying a LOT to God, praising Him, offering repentance of our sins, using incense, hearing readings from Scripture, and having a short explanation of the Scriptures that were read.
Jehovah's Witnesses have no ritualistic worship; no standardized prayers, no incense no images, or liturgy. We meet for Bible instruction and training for the ministry. All can share and participate in offering upbuilding comments for the entire congregation. (Heb 10:24, 25)

But how often did they recite it? The fact that we don’t even know how the Tetragrammaton was pronounced should be rather telling.

The Greek for Romans 10:13 doesn’t say “Jehovah,” it uses “Kyrion,” Lord.
Rom 10:13 is quoting Joel 2:32 where the tetragrammaton was in the original Hebrew text. "The name of Jehovah" is what people need to call on, in full knowledge of whom it is that they are calling on and why.

Did God tell the Jews to stop using his name? Or was it their own idea?
 

JayJayDee

Avid JW Bible Student
I checked the Septuagint which Paul was quoting from. Paul was quoting Joel 3:5 (in the Septuagint numbering), and Joel 3:5 says “And it shall come to pass [that] whosoever shall call on the name of the Lord shall be saved…” And in the Greek, “καὶ ἔσται, πᾶς, ὃς ἂν ἐπικαλέσηται τὸ ὄνομα Κυρίου…” The NWT, rather than translating the Greek of Romans 10:13 properly, is instead changing the text to reflect what the editors thought it should be.
If the tetragrammaton was there in Joel 3:32 and in other places in the Septuagint, how would you feel about it then?

So even in the Septuagint, two hundred years before Christ, the Tetragrammaton was being substituted by the Jews for such things as “Kyrios,” or “Lord.” It’s not just the recent English translations that have been doing this; it’s been going on for over two thousand years.


"Over the past several decades many fragments of ancient Greek versions of the Hebrew Scriptures have been discovered wherein the divine name was found written, usually in Hebrew letters. This indicates that the divine name was used in Greek versions until well into the ninth century C.E.

We are presenting ten manuscripts that contain the divine name, along with pertinent information.
(1) LXXP. Fouad Inv. 266 renders the divine name by the Tetragrammaton written in square Hebrew characters () in the following places: De 18:5, 5, 7, 15, 16; 19:8, 14; 20:4, 13, 18; 21:1, 8; 23:5; 24:4, 9; 25:15, 16; 26:2, 7, 8, 14; 27:2, 3, 7, 10, 15; 28:1, 1, 7, 8, 9, 13, 61, 62, 64, 65; 29:4, 10, 20, 29; 30:9, 20; 31:3, 26, 27, 29; 32:3, 6, 19. Therefore, in this collection the Tetragrammaton occurs 49 times in identified places in Deuteronomy. In addition, in this collection the Tetragrammaton occurs three times in unidentified fragments, namely, in fragments 116, 117 and 123. This papyrus, found in Egypt, was dated to the first century B.C.E.

(2)LXXVTS 10a renders the divine name by the Tetragrammaton written in ancient Hebrew characters () in the following places: Jon 4:2; Mic 1:1, 3; 4:4, 5, 7; 5:4, 4; Hab 2:14, 16, 20; 3:9; Zep 1:3, 14; 2:10; Zec 1:3, 3, 4; 3:5, 6, 7. This leather scroll, found in the Judean desert in a cave in Naḥal Ḥever, was dated to the end of the first century C.E. The fragments of this scroll were published in Supplements to Vetus Testamentum, Vol. X, Leiden, 1963, pp. 170-178.

(3) LXXIEJ 12 renders the divine name by the Tetragrammaton written in ancient Hebrew characters () in Jon 3:3. This shred of parchment, found in the Judean desert in a cave in Nahal Hever, was dated to the end of the first century C.E. It was published in Israel Exploration Journal, Vol. 12, 1962, p. 203.

(4) LXXVTS 10b renders the divine name by the Tetragrammaton written in ancient Hebrew characters () in the following places: Zec 8:20; 9:1, 1, 4. This parchment scroll, found in the Judean desert in a cave in Naḥal Ḥever, was dated to the middle of the first century C.E. It was published in Supplements to Vetus Testamentum, Vol. X, 1963, p. 178.

(5) 4Q LXX Levb renders the divine name in Greek letters (IAO) in Le 3:12; 4:27. This papyrus manuscript, found in Qumran Cave 4, was dated to the first century B.C.E. A preliminary report of this manuscript was presented in Supplements to Vetus Testamentum, Vol. IV, 1957, p. 157.

(6) LXXP. Oxy. VII.1007 renders the divine name by abbreviating the Tetragrammaton in the form of a double Yohdh () in Ge 2:8, 18. This vellum leaf, dated to the third century C.E., was published in The Oxyrhynchus Papyri, Part VII, edited with translations and notes by Arthur S. Hunt, London, 1910, pp. 1, 2.

(7) AqBurkitt renders the divine name by the Tetragrammaton written in ancient Hebrew characters () in the following places: 1Ki 20:13, 13, 14; 2Ki 23:12, 16, 21, 23, 25, 26, 27. These fragments of the Greek text of the version of Aquila were published by F. Crawford Burkitt in his work Fragments of the Books of Kings According to the Translation of Aquila, Cambridge, 1898, pp. 3-8. These palimpsest fragments of the books of Kings were found in the synagogue genizah in Cairo, Egypt. They were dated to the end of the fifth century or the beginning of the sixth century C.E.

(8) AqTaylor renders the divine name by the Tetragrammaton written in ancient Hebrew characters () in the following places: Ps 91:2, 9;
92:1, 4, 5, 8, 9; 96:7, 7, 8, 9, 10, 13; 97:1, 5, 9, 10, 12; 102:15, 16, 19, 21; 103:1, 2, 6, 8. These fragments of the Greek text of the version of Aquila were published by C. Taylor in his work Hebrew-Greek Cairo Genizah Palimpsests, Cambridge, 1900, pp. 54-65. These fragments were dated after the middle of the fifth century C.E., but not later than the beginning of the sixth century C.E.

(9) SymP. Vindob. G. 39777 renders the divine name by the Tetragrammaton written in archaic Hebrew characters ( or ) in the following places: Ps 69:13, 30, 31. This fragment of a parchment roll with part of Ps 69 in Symmachus (68 in LXX), kept in the Österreichische Nationalbibliothek, Vienna, was dated to the third or fourth century C.E. It was published by Dr. Carl Wessely in Studien zur Palaeographie und Papyruskunde, Vol. XI., Leipzig, 1911, p. 171.
Here we reproduce the fragment of this papyrus containing the divine name.

(10) Ambrosian O 39 sup. renders the divine name by the Tetragrammaton written in square Hebrew characters () in all five columns in the following places: Ps 18:30, 31, 41, 46; 28:6, 7, 8; 29:1, 1, 2, 2, 3, 3; 30:1, 2, 4, 7, 8, 10, 10, 12; 31:1, 5, 6, 9, 21, 23, 23, 24; 32:10, 11; 35:1, 22, 24, 27; 36:Sup, 5; 46:7, 8, 11; 89:49 (in columns 1, 2 and 4), 51, 52. This codex, dated to the end of the ninth century C.E., has five columns. The first column contains a transliteration of the Hebrew text into Greek, the second column has the Greek version of Aquila, the third column has the Greek version of Symmachus, the fourth column contains the LXX and the fifth column contains the Greek version of Quinta. A facsimile edition of this palimpsest, together with a transcript of the text, was published in Rome in 1958 by Giovanni Mercati under the title Psalterii Hexapli Reliquiae . . . Pars prima. Codex Rescriptus Bybliothecae Ambrosianae O 39 sup. Phototypice Expressus et Transcriptus.

These ten manuscript fragments indicate that the translators of the Hebrew text into Greek used the divine name where it occurred in the Hebrew text. Moreover, the occurrence of the Tetragrammaton in Zec 9:4 corroborates the claim that the Jewish Sopherim replaced the Tetragrammaton with ’Adho·nai′ (Sovereign Lord) in the Hebrew text in 134 places"
(Appendix 1 C NWT)
 
Last edited:

JayJayDee

Avid JW Bible Student
I merely seek to present the teaching of my Church as best as I am able.
We can acquaint each other. I am learning much about a religion that is not common where I live, so for that I am grateful.

Then did Solomon break this commandment by ornately decorating the whole of the Temple? Did God break His own commandment by telling the Hebrews to make cherubim? Did the Jews at Dura break the commandment by covering the walls of their synagogue with icons of Biblical scenes?
Not once can I see a depiction in the temple of a human being in deified form. Cherubs were the only living things represented apart from Palm trees and blossoms.

Everything that was in the temple was specifically prescribed by God. Not one thing was the idea of men.

"See, now, for Jehovah himself has chosen you to build a house as a sanctuary. Be courageous and act.
And David proceeded to give Sol′o·mon his son the architectural plan of the porch and of its houses and its storerooms and its roof chambers and its dark inner rooms and the house of the propitiatory cover; 12 even the architectural plan of everything that had come to be with him by inspiration for the courtyards of Jehovah’s house and for all the dining rooms all around, for the treasures of the house of the [true] God and for the treasures of the things made holy"
(1 Chron 28:10-12)

The cherubs that were located in the Most Holy compartment of the Temple were gigantic figures of about 14.5 feet, overlaid with gold. Their wingspan was double that so that they filled the whole room. So it appears as if nothing in God's temple featured humans at all. Cherubs only were chosen.
 

JayJayDee

Avid JW Bible Student
Yes, we give her great respect. She is the first Christian. She is the New Eve, who said “Yes” to God of her own free will. She undid Eve’s disobedience with her own obedience. She opened the way for the reconciliation of God and man. She broke ground for the fountain of living water, Christ our God, to spring forth into the world. We call her womb “more spacious than the heavens,” because she contained in her womb the Uncontainable. Given that she is Jesus’ mother, and that Christ did His first miracle at Mary’s request, her prayers on behalf of the Christian race are especially powerful.
I know that this is what the church teaches, but do you have scripture to assign this place to Mary as the "new Eve" or as 'the one who opened the way to reconciliation of God and man'?

The Bible clearly assigns that role to Jesus.

Mary is certainly "blessed among women" in being chosen to be the mother of Jesus Christ, but both of his earthly parents were important in the raising of Jesus in a dedicated Jewish household. In Jewish families, the father was head of the house and Mary, as a good Jewish wife and mother would have remained in her God assigned role. Joseph had obviously died before Jesus, as we see him assigning the care of his mother over to the apostle John. This was because his siblings were not yet believers.

Do you not think it strange that the title "mother of God" and "Queen of Heaven" was given to ancient mother goddesses, pre-dating Christianity by centuries?

The Scriptures do not specifically identify the “queen of the heavens.” It has been suggested that this goddess is to be identified with the Sumerian fertility goddess Inanna, Babylonian Ishtar. (From where we get the name "Easter")
The name Inanna literally means “Queen of Heaven.” The corresponding Babylonian goddess Ishtar was qualified in the Akkadian texts by the epithets “queen of the heavens” and “queen of the heavens and of the stars.” Just co-incidence that these titles were transferred to Mary?

In short, every statement we make about Mary is actually a statement about Christ. All the honor we attribute to Mary is because of Christ. “Henceforth shall all generations call me blessed,” Mary says in her Magnificat. Even our calling Mary “Theotokos” is rather a statement about Christ—Mary is the Mother of God, meaning that Jesus did not cease to be God while on earth.
Since the scriptures themselves give Mary no such title or any special accolades, I don't believe that Mary is anything more than the earthly mother of Jesus who became the Christ. She is to be honored as such but this is taken way too far by the catholic faith IMO.

The Church is the Body of Christ, the whole Christian family not the buildings in which we worship. You could destroy every Orthodox church building in the world, and Orthodoxy would go on unchanged.
As it should be. Can I ask what you believe the flock would do if there was no building in which to worship?

Making images to tell stories or for decoration are perfectly acceptable. Are you opposed to children’s picture books? Are you opposed to photographs in the newspaper? Are you opposed to paintings, drawings, sketches, or other forms of artwork? All of these would be violations of the Second Commandment in your view, would they not?
:no: actually.

We publish books and literature full of illustrations and depictions of Bible stories. They are just not all over the walls of the building in which we worship our God.
Our Kingdom Halls are just meeting places where we go for Bible instruction. We have little in the way of distractions in the decor.
There are not depictions of deified humans with halos and such that the average person may mistake for an idol.

What do you do if you see an Orthodox believer kissing or crossing themselves before an icon or statue....or one being placed on an alter with incense burning etc? Is that considered idolatry? Does the priest deal with such ones or does he leave it to them to figure out the problem?

We are very careful to separate those things. Our elders would be offering counsel if we were to cross the line on that count, or any other.
 
Last edited:

Shiranui117

Pronounced Shee-ra-noo-ee
Premium Member
Interesting explanation Shiranui117, but can I ask where the command is in scripture to make feast days of these events? Where are we commended to celebrate Christ's birth? The Magi's visit? His resurrection etc....?
Do we need to be commanded by the Scriptures to celebrate and praise the things that God has done for us, giving glory to God in memory of certain points in salvation history?

Keep in mind that the New Testament is nowhere close to as comprehensive as the Old Testament. The point of the New Testament was to give witness to Christ—what He did for us, how He became one of us, died for us, and rose from the dead, freeing us from death and sin. Acts is a recounting of the spread of the early Church from being only several dozen/hundred disciples of Christ, to a religion that was spreading like wildfire in the hearts and minds of people all over the Roman Empire. The Epistles are simply encouragement and instruction in certain areas the churches were having trouble with, and clarifications of certain soteriological and theological questions. The New Testament is not exhaustive at all in regards to the practices of the early Church; in fact, there are only a few scant references to it.

That’s why so many scholars studying the history of Christianity have to rely on extra-Biblical sources as the Didache, the writings of the Fathers, and architectural remnants of the earliest Christian churches and houses in order to piece together what the worship of the early Church looked like, because the Bible does not tell us everything we need to know. So far, it’s the Liturgies that everyone agrees are the closest thing to how the early Church worshipped—the Liturgies of the Copts, Syriacs, Byzantines, Latins, Ethiopians, Armenians, Assyrians, and so on. All of these Liturgies evolved independently of one another, yet they’re all so similar in so many respects, in terms of the prayers and patterns of worship. The Bible is nebulous at best when describing what a typical Sunday morning Liturgy looked like. All we know is that hymns, Psalms, intercessory prayers, Scriptures and instruction were offered. Revelation offers hints of heavenly worship, involving incense, intercessory prayers, and many hymns. These descriptions of heavenly worship have informed the various and diverse liturgical rites of all the churches and peoples I mentioned above.

The feast days in Israel were specifically commanded by Jehovah and every detail was supplied by God for the celebration of such events. This is no doubt because when man decides to hold a celebration off his own bat, the danger exists of offending Jehovah by introducing things that appeal to man but do not appeal to God. Remember the golden calf? It was held as "a festival to the Lord" who delivered them out of Egypt. It wasn't what they called it that was the problem, but rather that they used an image borrowed from the Egyptians in their choice of a representative for their god, thereby practicing idolatry. The punishment was severe.
No, the Hebrews abandoned God and made a new one for themselves. The golden calf wasn’t just an image they decided to use for God, it was an entirely different God, since (they thought) the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob just wasn’t cutting it.

Can I ask again, where such a feast day is commanded by God in scripture? There is no such celebration mentioned in the NT, so it was absent, along with the aforementioned feast days from the practices of the first century Bible writers.
As I’ve said, the New Testament is not a comprehensive description of Christian practice, but merely some theological/soteriological teachings and advice that ended up getting written down. It is not the whole of early Christian teaching.

I cannot accept anything as "divine" when it didn't exist prior to the 4th century. This is when the apostasy became full blown, when Christendom was born with the Roman Church under Constantine, (who I believe was a pagan sun worshipper all his life.)
I assume you distinguish between “Christianity” and “Christendom.” Because Christianity obviously existed since 33 AD, and the Roman Church had existed since the time of Acts, and is specifically mentioned in Acts. The fact that there’s an “Epistle to the Romans” should be clear evidence that the Roman Church existed since Apostolic times. St. Ignatius of Antioch would end up writing an epistle to the Roman Church himself before being martyred.

The church paints Constantine as a hero, but history is not so kind to him.

This all occurred before his conversion to Christianity in 312, so it’s kind of irrelevant, don’t you think?

A random Internet picture with no context means nothing to me. Can you provide the page that pic came from, please?

My goodness! You guys seem to have a feast day for everything ! :eek:
Yep, we like to praise God for what He has done and reflect on it, on every occasion. ;)

Once again, show me the command in scripture.....
Once again, the NT contains no exhaustive list of commands as the Pentateuch does. You’re asking the wrong question.

With the correct identification of the Magi as Babylonian astrologers, we have to ask,"would God use pagan worshippers of false gods to identify the location of his precious new-born son to a wicked king who wanted to do away with him?"
God used the star to bring these three pagans to faith in Christ. God used the image of a star to show astrologers the folly of their practice, and to bring them to Christ, the true Sun of Righteousness (as opposed to the false sun gods and moon gods and star gods).

The question must then be rightfully asked..."who sent the star to guide them to where Jesus was?" It was no ordinary star for it came to a stop above where the young child was. (Matt 2:9-12) It could quite easily have led them directly to him, but it didn't....it led them to Herod.
God sent the star, to make known His birth to the nations.

Incidentally, Jesus was no longer a new-born baby by the time of their arrival, but a "young child" living in a house with his parents. (Matt 2:11)
Agreed. Good observation.

There is also no mention of their number, so even though there were three gifts, it doesn't mention three men.
The Tradition of the Orthodox Church identifies three, by name: Balthasar, Jasper and Melchior, who later became Apostles to Persia, eventually meeting up with St. Thomas the Apostle, and as the story goes, being baptized by him and ordained as bishops.

Nevertheless, many babies were put to death by Herod's men on account of them being directed to Jerusalem first and to bringing Jesus' birth to the attention of a wicked and jealous king. God would never be responsible for something like that.
Of course God wasn’t responsible—it was Herod who chose to slaughter the children and become paranoid, rather than acknowledging Christ for Who He was as even pagans were doing. God gave Herod a choice. Herod decided to act on it in a poor manner. What Herod did is on Herod, not God.

If the tetragrammaton was there in Joel 3:32 and in other places in the Septuagint, how would you feel about it then?
Thanks for the sources, they were interesting.

To be honest, the use (or lack thereof) of the Divine Name in the Scriptures doesn't concern me one bit. God still hears me when I cry to Him and call Him "God," "Lord," "Master," "Kyrie," "Gott," "Herr," "Боже," "Бог," "Dumnuzeule," "Allah," "HaShem," "Adonai" or any number of other names. How others choose to call God is none of my business--the fact that any of us call upon God is the important part. He hears us, regardless of whether we use one of His titles or His Name, regardless of the language. I got to know God as "God", first and foremost, and I see no reason to change the way He revealed--and continues to reveal--Himself to me. If He wishes me to get to know Him by another name, then He will reveal that name to me. But I doubt that He would insist that I abandon using any of His names that He has already shown me! :D

I suppose this is a bit of a difference in thought between you and me; you are zealous for the name that He revealed to Moses and the Jewish people--and that is a commendable thing. I just go with what is revealed to me personally. I don't think either of us are wrong in how we call upon God; as I said, the most important thing is that we call upon Him in the first place! ;)
 
Last edited:

Shiranui117

Pronounced Shee-ra-noo-ee
Premium Member
We can acquaint each other. I am learning much about a religion that is not common where I live, so for that I am grateful.
Thank you. It's good to know that I'm able to be helpful. :) :bow: Here's to a continually fruitful dialogue!

Not once can I see a depiction in the temple of a human being in deified form.
That wasn’t my point. My point was, there were carved images all throughout the Temple.

Cherubs were the only living things represented apart from Palm trees and blossoms.
If the Israelites worshipped a calf made out of gold, how much more do you think they might be inclined to worship a cherub?

Everything that was in the temple was specifically prescribed by God. Not one thing was the idea of men.
Which lends even more strength to the idea that it’s okay to carve and paint images of anything you want (except God the Father, Who has no form), as long as you don’t worship it.

The cherubs that were located in the Most Holy compartment of the Temple were gigantic figures of about 14.5 feet, overlaid with gold. Their wingspan was double that so that they filled the whole room. So it appears as if nothing in God's temple featured humans at all. Cherubs only were chosen.
Nor did I say that there were images of humans in the Temple at all. There were, however, images of humans (specifically, icons of Biblical scenes) in the synagogue at Dura.

I know that this is what the church teaches, but do you have scripture to assign this place to Mary as the "new Eve" or as 'the one who opened the way to reconciliation of God and man'?
Tell me, if Christ is the New Adam, then who do you suppose is the New Eve? The old Eve was the one who set into motion both her and Adam’s Fall through her disobedience to God’s command. The New Eve is the one who set into motion the redemption of mankind by saying “Yes” to God and allowing Christ to be born of her, with Christ being the one Who would set into motion humanity’s resurrection.

The Bible clearly assigns that role to Jesus.
Christ Himself is the way to reconciliation of God and man, as well as Himself being that reconciliation. Mary is the one who opened the way, because it was of her that Christ was born, with Christ reconciling humanity and Divinity within His own Person.

Mary is certainly "blessed among women" in being chosen to be the mother of Jesus Christ, but both of his earthly parents were important in the raising of Jesus in a dedicated Jewish household. In Jewish families, the father was head of the house and Mary, as a good Jewish wife and mother would have remained in her God assigned role. Joseph had obviously died before Jesus, as we see him assigning the care of his mother over to the apostle John. This was because his siblings were not yet believers.
I’d say that Jesus had no blood siblings; Joseph was a widower, who had had children from a previous marriage. If Mary had other children besides Jesus, then Jesus would have certainly entrusted Mary’s care to one of His brothers and sisters, and not to a man who was in no way related to Mary—to do otherwise would be absolutely unthinkable. It wasn’t just that Jesus’ siblings weren’t believers, that wouldn’t have mattered. It was that Jesus had no siblings in the first place, just step-siblings unrelated by blood to Mary.

Do you not think it strange that the title "mother of God" and "Queen of Heaven" was given to ancient mother goddesses, pre-dating Christianity by centuries?
It's no stranger than pagan rulers being called “Good Shepherd” before Christ used the title in reference to Himself. And TBH, the title “Queen of Heaven” isn’t one really used incredibly often by us Orthodox; that one’s more of a Roman thing. The title “Theotokos,” as I said, is a statement about Christ, not so much about Mary.

The Scriptures do not specifically identify the “queen of the heavens.” It has been suggested that this goddess is to be identified with the Sumerian fertility goddess Inanna, Babylonian Ishtar. (From where we get the name "Easter")
Actually, the word “Easter” comes from the German “Oster,” which can roughly mean “out of the East”. “Easter” is just the literal translation of German Oster. I should note that it’s only in a few Germanic languages that the name “Easter” is used; in nearly every other language, “Easter” is actually called “Pascha,” which means “Passover,” referring to Christ our Passover being risen from the dead. In many Slavic countries, the name is some derivative of the term “Great Day” or “Great Night,” because the day/night of Christ’s Resurrection is the greatest day/night of all. I personally don't say "Easter," I say "Pascha" instead. The name "Pascha" has no pagan connotations whatsoever, no Easter bunnies, no fertility goddess references, or anything silly like that.

Just co-incidence that these titles were transferred to Mary?
Just as much a coincidence as both Japanese and Egyptian emperors claiming lineage from the sun god/goddess (a really big coincidence).

Since the scriptures themselves give Mary no such title or any special accolades, I don't believe that Mary is anything more than the earthly mother of Jesus who became the Christ. She is to be honored as such but this is taken way too far by the catholic faith IMO.
They do get accused of Mariolatry a lot, and TBH, I think making Mary’s immaculate conception a dogma of the Faith is a little odd. If the Catholics ever dogmatize Mary as being the “Co-Mediatrix” of ALL grace given by God, i.e. every single grace the Holy Spirit gives comes through Mary, then yeah, that’s definitely taking it way too far. Thank God that this is still a fringe teaching by only some Catholics. We Orthodox do give a lot of honor to Mary, but we never take it to the line of Mariolatry by any means.

As it should be. Can I ask what you believe the flock would do if there was no building in which to worship?
We’d find a place. My Orthodox mission meets in a rented-out small business suite, and has been doing so for the last three years; we’re still saving up to build our own church. Other Orthodox parishes without their own building meet in parishioner’s houses, in small business suites, in backyards, under a tent, wherever we can find a place. During the fierce Soviet persecution of Orthodoxy, after our churches had been dynamited, after our cathedrals had been either desecrated and destroyed or turned into museums, after our monasteries were pillaged, after millions of Orthodox Christians were imprisoned, tortured, shot, blown up by grenades, sent to the Gulags, publicly humiliated, constantly ridiculed, and hunted down like wild animals, many imprisoned Orthodox Christians would gather secretly by night in the prison courtyard for Pascha, singing as quietly as possible while the priest served the Liturgy. Baptisms were done in bathtubs with just as much secrecy. Today, many Coptic Orthodox in Egypt are praying in the burnt-out shells of their churches and monasteries, after dozens of them were desecrated, sacked, looted and burned by Islamofascist supporters of the Muslim Brotherhood.

:no:actually.

We publish books and literature full of illustrations and depictions of Bible stories. They are just not all over the walls of the building in which we worship our God.
Alright, so you guys aren’t total iconoclasts. :) We put icons all over our churches, because a picture’s worth a thousand words. If you study icons, you learn so much of Christian and Biblical teaching. If you want, I can provide a few examples of icons, and elaborate on the teaching they contain.

What do you do if you see an Orthodox believer kissing or crossing themselves before an icon or statue...
We Orthodox have no statues, just icons. We kiss the icons as a sign of respect to the Saint, and as a sign of respect for what God has done through them. My Byzantine Catholic priest once explained it this way: When you go to your grandma’s house, what’s the first thing you do? You go say hi to Grandma and give her a kiss. When you enter the church, you go say hi to Jesus. A soldier saluting the flag is not saluting a colored piece of cloth, but is instead saluting what that cloth stands for—his family, his homeland, those who have sacrificed so much that he may have a good life. Just the same, when we kiss an icon, we’re not giving honor to a piece of wood and paint. We’re giving honor to those holy ones who have gone before us, who have done everything they could to shine the light of Christ into the world. And, most importantly, we give honor to God Who made this all possible.

or one being placed on an alter with incense burning etc?
Icons are really only placed on altars when they’re being blessed for use, much like how you’d get a car blessed.
Is that considered idolatry?
The act itself isn’t important—it’s the intend behind the act that matters. If a Saint or icon is ever worshipped, then that’s a big problem. Not even an icon of Christ, let alone icons of the Saints, should ever be worshipped. If you want to worship Christ, you don’t worship an icon of Christ to do it. You can give honor to Christ by venerating an icon, but no further.
Does the priest deal with such ones or does he leave it to them to figure out the problem?
The line that should not be crossed is common knowledge in Orthodoxy. Everyone knows the proper limit and the proper way. If someone doesn’t know that, then someone—clergy or layperson, it doesn’t matter—should instruct them immediately.

We are very careful to separate those things. Our elders would be offering counsel if we were to cross the line on that count, or any other.
The same is true of us Orthodox.
 
Last edited:

JayJayDee

Avid JW Bible Student
Do we need to be commanded by the Scriptures to celebrate and praise the things that God has done for us, giving glory to God in memory of certain points in salvation history?
Yes, I believe we do need to follow the guidelines of scripture. In view of man's history, he oftentimes does not know where to draw the line. Some are of the opinion that if a little is good, more must be better...that is where fanaticism come from. Going "beyond what is written" (in scripture) is something Paul warned us about. (1 Cor 4:6)

If we look at the scriptures and follow the model Jesus himself set, we will keep our worship free from the trappings that 'man' thinks it ought to have. By adding little by little over time, it grows into something like the Pharisees taught. Men's thoughts, not God's. That is why we keep our worship simple and free from man made traditions.

Keep in mind that the New Testament is nowhere close to as comprehensive as the Old Testament. The point of the New Testament was to give witness to Christ...<snip>....The Epistles are simply encouragement and instruction in certain areas the churches were having trouble with, and clarifications of certain soteriological and theological questions. The New Testament is not exhaustive at all in regards to the practices of the early Church; in fact, there are only a few scant references to it.

I think we get a fairly good idea that the first century Christians kept things pretty simple as far as their worship was concerned. Some tried to complicate it by adhering to the Law of Moses, but Paul said that Christ's death had ended the law. It was fulfilled in Christ and no longer binding on Christians. (Rom 10:2-4)

When gentile believers began to come into the congregations, these had no instruction in Jewish worship. They were not commanded to become Jewish proselytes and keep the law of Moses in order to become Christians. In fact when the circumcision issue arose, the older men in Jerusalem made the crucial decision NOT to impose Jewish laws on gentile Christians. They said..."For the holy spirit and we ourselves have favored adding no further burden to you except these necessary things, to keep abstaining from things sacrificed to idols and from blood and from things strangled and from fornication. If you carefully keep yourselves from these things, you will prosper. Good health to you!” (Acts 15:28, 29)
The "necessary things" were made clear by Holy Spirit and unlike the complicated Jewish system, the teachings of Christ by comparison, were very simple indeed.

That’s why so many scholars studying the history of Christianity have to rely on extra-Biblical sources as the Didache, the writings of the Fathers, and architectural remnants of the earliest Christian churches and houses in order to piece together what the worship of the early Church looked like, because the Bible does not tell us everything we need to know.
On the contrary, I believe that they tell all we "need" to know. Why complicate Christianity with additions that were not in evidence in the first century? Do we need to embellish what was not embellished to begin with?

So far, it’s the Liturgies that everyone agrees are the closest thing to how the early Church worshipped—the Liturgies of the Copts, Syriacs, Byzantines, Latins, Ethiopians, Armenians, Assyrians, and so on. All of these Liturgies evolved independently of one another, yet they’re all so similar in so many respects, in terms of the prayers and patterns of worship. The Bible is nebulous at best when describing what a typical Sunday morning Liturgy looked like. All we know is that hymns, Psalms, intercessory prayers, Scriptures and instruction were offered. Revelation offers hints of heavenly worship, involving incense, intercessory prayers, and many hymns. These descriptions of heavenly worship have informed the various and diverse liturgical rites of all the churches and peoples I mentioned above.
I do not see anything in scripture that even resembles these things in the first century. Christians did not worship at the synagogues, gentiles were not permitted to go there, unless they were converts to Judaism....nor did they hold to Jewish traditions and festivals. It was a completely different system of worship. There were no priests or clergy, just older men (elders) who were shepherds of the flock. No distinctive garb, no fancy titles, just "brothers" working together to tend the flock.

"But you are not to be called rabbi, for you have one teacher, and you are all
brothers. 9 And call no one your father on earth, for you have one Father—the one in heaven. 10 Nor are you to be called instructors, for you have one instructor, the Messiah. 11 The greatest among you will be your servant. 12 All who exalt themselves will be humbled, and all who humble themselves will be exalted." (Matt 23:8-12) This indicates no hierarchy.

No, the Hebrews abandoned God and made a new one for themselves. The golden calf wasn’t just an image they decided to use for God, it was an entirely different God, since (they thought) the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob just wasn’t cutting it.
According to Ex 32:1-6 whilst Moses was up in the mountain receiving the Ten Commandments..."When the people saw that Moshe was taking a long time to come down from the mountain, they gathered around Aharon and said to him, “Get busy; and make us gods to go ahead of us; because this Moshe, the man that brought us up from the land of Egypt — we don’t know what has become of him.” 2 Aharon said to them, “Have your wives, sons and daughters strip off their gold earrings; and bring them to me.” 3 The people stripped off their gold earrings and brought them to Aharon. 4 He received what they gave him, melted it down, and made it into the shape of a calf. They said, “Isra’el! Here is your god, who brought you up from the land of Egypt!” 5 On seeing this, Aharon built an altar in front of it and proclaimed, “Tomorrow is to be a feast for Adonai.” 6 Early the next morning they got up and offered burnt offerings and presented peace offerings. Afterwards, the people sat down to eat and drink; then they got up to indulge in revelry." (CJB)

It is apparent from this scripture that their Egyptian bondage had exposed them to the worship of false gods and idols. On seeing that the one who led them out of Egypt had seemingly disappeared, they wanted something familiar to keep leading them and fell back into old ways. (this was after they had agreed to serve Jehovah) But the golden calf was a representation of the God who had ' brought them up from the land of Egypt'. The festival they held was to ADONAI, (Jehovah) the God of their forefathers.
Do you see anything there that would indicate that they had abandoned Jehovah?
It was their practice of idolatry that was offensive to God...representing him as one of the filthy idols of Egypt was intolerable as the Ten Commandments revealed.
 

JayJayDee

Avid JW Bible Student
As I&#8217;ve said, the New Testament is not a comprehensive description of Christian practice, but merely some theological/soteriological teachings and advice that ended up getting written down. It is not the whole of early Christian teaching.
If that is what God provided as "scripture", "inspired" by him and made available as part of his "word", then I have no reason to believe that these writings are somehow deficient. That would make God's ability to make truth known to his worshippers, deficient. The Bible as it is known today is available to just about all people, no matter what language they speak. Are you suggesting that it is lacking somehow? Would it's author allow such a thing?

I assume you distinguish between &#8220;Christianity&#8221; and &#8220;Christendom.&#8221; Because Christianity obviously existed since 33 AD, and the Roman Church had existed since the time of Acts, and is specifically mentioned in Acts. The fact that there&#8217;s an &#8220;Epistle to the Romans&#8221; should be clear evidence that the Roman Church existed since Apostolic times. St. Ignatius of Antioch would end up writing an epistle to the Roman Church himself before being martyred.
OK, I believe that the "church" (that is the consummate teachings of the Christ which were carried on by the apostles) was in existence until the death of the last apostle John at the end of the first century. The apostles were the restraining influence against the apostasy that was foretold to come. (The sowing of the weeds among the wheat)

Paul said concerning the restraining of the apostles' presence...."And you know what is now restraining him, so that he may be revealed when his time comes. 7 For the mystery of lawlessness is already at work, but only until the one who now restrains it is removed." (2 Thess 2:6, 7 NRSVCE)

The 'lawless one' was to be revealed only in due time. According to Jesus' parable, it was to be at the time of the harvest. Only then was there to be an identification and separating of the 'wheat' from the 'weeds'.

This all occurred before his conversion to Christianity in 312, so it&#8217;s kind of irrelevant, don&#8217;t you think?
No I don't, because Constantine's "conversion" was not followed by baptism and his having a foot in both camps (paganism and Christianity) did not prove that he was ever truly a Christian. He was an astute politician who 'ran with hare and hunted with hounds'. I do not believe that he is the hero that the church makes him out to be. :(

A random Internet picture with no context means nothing to me. Can you provide the page that pic came from, please?
Did you notice the wording that went with the image?

"Apollo on the Roman mosaic El-Jem, Tunisia"

This is an image of Apollo...the Roman sun god. Compare icons of Jesus with this and what do you see? Halos are connected to sun worship, not Christianity.

Greek and Roman Mythology for Smartphones and Mobile Devices - MobileReference - Google Books


Once again, the NT contains no exhaustive list of commands as the Pentateuch does. You&#8217;re asking the wrong question.
LOL, or you're giving the wrong answer. :D There was no list of exhaustive commands for Christians...never was. They had only two laws that they were obligated to keep.

When Jesus was asked..."Teacher, which commandment in the law is the greatest?&#8221; 37 He said to him, &#8220;&#8216;You shall love the Lord your God with all your heart, and with all your soul, and with all your mind.&#8217; 38 This is the greatest and first commandment. 39 And a second is like it: &#8216;You shall love your neighbor as yourself.&#8217; 40 On these two commandments hang all the law and the prophets.&#8221; (Matt 22:36-40 NRSVCE)

God used the star to bring these three pagans to faith in Christ.

Where is it stated in the Bible that the Magi converted to Christianity? It didn't yet exist. They could have converted to Judaism, but the Bible does not say they did anything other than bring gifts to a royal child as was their custom.

Some other interesting side points, is that the gifts the Magi gave were expensive ones. When Mary and Joseph presented Jesus at the temple, they could only offer two turtle doves as their sacrifice....this was the offering of the poor. (Luke 2:22-24) This proves that the Magi did not come to a newborn Jesus in the stable.
Matthew says they were in a house by the time of the Magi's arrival. Jesus was probably about two years old, judging by Herod's decree.(Matt 2:16)

The offerings made by Mary and Joseph were according to the Law of Moses....
"But if she cannot afford enough for a sheep, she must then take two turtledoves or two young pigeons, one for a burnt offering and one for a sin offering, and the priest must make atonement for her, and she must be clean.&#8217;&#8221; (Lev 12:8)

The two turtledoves were for a "burnt offering" and a "sin offering", the priest making atonement for her sin. This is telling Catholic believers that Mary was not sinless, otherwise no offering would have been necessary or acceptable.

I am assuming that EO does not believe that Mary was immaculately conceived?

God used the image of a star to show astrologers the folly of their practice, and to bring them to Christ, the true Sun of Righteousness (as opposed to the false sun gods and moon gods and star gods).
That is an assumption, not backed up by scripture at all.

God sent the star, to make known His birth to the nations.

I'm afraid that this is not true. God revealed the birth of the Messiah to Jewish shepherds who were out in the fields at night. (not in the winter of December when they kept their flocks indoors.)
Just as Jesus' conception was announced by an angel, so was his birth. (Luke 2:8-14) A heavenly host of angels backed up the announcement....no pagans were necessary.

The Tradition of the Orthodox Church identifies three, by name: Balthasar, Jasper and Melchior, who later became Apostles to Persia, eventually meeting up with St. Thomas the Apostle, and as the story goes, being baptized by him and ordained as bishops.

Tradition again...not scripture. The Bible does not say "three wise men". Nor does it ever speak about them becoming "bishops" or any meeting with Thomas.

You see I am very suspicious of things that do not originate with scripture but are solely the traditions of men of later times. The Jews fell victim to this, don't you think it could happen again?
 
Last edited:

JayJayDee

Avid JW Bible Student
To be honest, the use (or lack thereof) of the Divine Name in the Scriptures doesn't concern me one bit. God still hears me when I cry to Him and call Him "God," "Lord," "Master," "Kyrie," "Gott," "Herr," "&#1041;&#1086;&#1078;&#1077;," "&#1041;&#1086;&#1075;," "Dumnuzeule," "Allah," "HaShem," "Adonai" or any number of other names.
Jehovah has many titles...but not one of them is his personal name. Its meaning is rich and defines who he is, not just what he is.

I suppose this is a bit of a difference in thought between you and me; you are zealous for the name that He revealed to Moses and the Jewish people--and that is a commendable thing. I just go with what is revealed to me personally. I don't think either of us are wrong in how we call upon God; as I said, the most important thing is that we call upon Him in the first place!
True, but if you had a room full of fathers, and a child comes in and calls out "daddy!", only one of them will respond to his call as his true father. When we "call on the name of Jehovah" it is a recognition of all that his name means and all that our relationship with him encompasses. We know him and he knows us as his son or daughter.
 

Shiranui117

Pronounced Shee-ra-noo-ee
Premium Member
Yes, I believe we do need to follow the guidelines of scripture. In view of man's history, he oftentimes does not know where to draw the line. Some are of the opinion that if a little is good, more must be better...that is where fanaticism come from. Going "beyond what is written" (in scripture) is something Paul warned us about. (1 Cor 4:6)
Except, the New Testament doesn't lay out very many guidelines at all for what worship should look like. The NT is more concerned about Orthodoxy, that is, right belief, rather than orthopraxy, or right practice. Judaism, on the other hand, was and is a very orthopraxic religion. The amount of do's and don'ts in the Torah should be clear enough evidence of that. It's not even stated how many gods you can or can't believe in--as long as you only worship God alone, you're fine. We can also see in the Bible that man's understanding of the afterlife and of eschatology changed over time. What doesn't change throughout the OT (after Sinai that is) is the Law.

If we look at the scriptures and follow the model Jesus himself set, we will keep our worship free from the trappings that 'man' thinks it ought to have. By adding little by little over time, it grows into something like the Pharisees taught. Men's thoughts, not God's. That is why we keep our worship simple and free from man made traditions.
I'm curious, what do you think of this thanksgiving hymn?

[youtube]GtNRime7e_M[/youtube]

It's uplifting, majestic, praises God for so many of the things He's done for us, praises Him for Who He is, praises His might and wisdom that He exercised in creating the world, and thanks Him so many beautiful aspects of His creation.

Yet, none of this hymn is commanded in Scripture. I can provide dozens of beautiful hymns and prayers that have been composed by Christians (Orthodox and otherwise) over the last two thousand years that convey a true spirit of worship and reverence, while being heartfelt and resonant in the chords of man's soul. Should we dispense of all these because they weren't commanded by Scriptures?

Even though the various Liturgies as we now know them are the product of a few centuries of development, if you've ever experienced a Byzantine Divine Liturgy, or a Syriac Holy Qurbana, or a Coptic Orthodox Mass, or any other ancient Christian Liturgy, you would know how powerful an experience it is. One uses all five senses to worship God. It's not just one's brain that is engaged in loving, praising, worshipping and praying to God, but also the entire body, mind, soul and strength (remember the first of the Two Greatest Commandments?). The hymns and prayers are rich and almost inexhaustible with depth and meaning. You don't need to sit and study and use solely your brain, but the learning is rather done through the heart. Rather than learning through studying, you're learning through experiencing, which is so much more powerful and meaningful. Just by going to the Liturgy and participating in it, your soul (and indeed, your entire being) is lifted up to God and healed, your spiritual batteries are recharged, you are connected to your brethren in Christ as a community, and you're refueled to go out there and walk your walk with Christ. The Liturgy is one of the best examples of the transformative power of the Christian faith.

None of this was present in its final form at the advent of Christianity, but is the result of an organic and living process of Christian experience and life. The Liturgies are not a Pharisaic overcomplication of things, but a Christian outpouring of love and reverence resulting from dynamic experience and organic growth, as we try our best to worship and pray to God, walking in His ways as best we can.

I think we get a fairly good idea that the first century Christians kept things pretty simple as far as their worship was concerned. Some tried to complicate it by adhering to the Law of Moses, but Paul said that Christ's death had ended the law. It was fulfilled in Christ and no longer binding on Christians. (Rom 10:2-4)

When gentile believers began to come into the congregations, these had no instruction in Jewish worship. They were not commanded to become Jewish proselytes and keep the law of Moses in order to become Christians. In fact when the circumcision issue arose, the older men in Jerusalem made the crucial decision NOT to impose Jewish laws on gentile Christians. They said..."For the holy spirit and we ourselves have favored adding no further burden to you except these necessary things, to keep abstaining from things sacrificed to idols and from blood and from things strangled and from fornication. If you carefully keep yourselves from these things, you will prosper. Good health to you!&#8221; (Acts 15:28, 29)
The "necessary things" were made clear by Holy Spirit and unlike the complicated Jewish system, the teachings of Christ by comparison, were very simple indeed.
You might like to do some cursory research about what early Christian worship looked like: Christianity in the 1st century - Worship
Christianity in the 1st century - Jewish continuity

Also, the Eucharist was very central to early Christian worship, as St. Justin Martyr (died around 150) attests. Even in his day, the two cores of every modern Christian Liturgy were present--that is, the Liturgy of the Word and the Liturgy of the Eucharist.

On the contrary, I believe that they tell all we "need" to know. Why complicate Christianity with additions that were not in evidence in the first century? Do we need to embellish what was not embellished to begin with?
Is "knowing" the same as "doing"? Are theological/soteriological clarifications and witnesses to the life of Christ an instruction manual for how to worship and perform the Sacraments?

I do not see anything in scripture that even resembles these things in the first century. Christians did not worship at the synagogues, gentiles were not permitted to go there, unless they were converts to Judaism....nor did they hold to Jewish traditions and festivals. It was a completely different system of worship. There were no priests or clergy, just older men (elders) who were shepherds of the flock. No distinctive garb, no fancy titles, just "brothers" working together to tend the flock.
At this point, I'm tempted to drop this tangent. You're free to hold your own view of history, even when the facts of history and the consensus of scholars are against you. If you sincerely wish to learn, then I'm willing to provide resources. If you decline to investigate history with an open mind to learn, then let's let this tangent go.

(Matt 23:8-12) This indicates no hierarchy.
I thought I addressed this several pages ago? Quoting from page 2. We can resume the discussion again if you'd like; I'd be happy to present and explain the abundant Apostolic, historical and Scriptural proof of the clergy and church hierarchy.

Originally Posted by Shiranui117
As a matter of history, yes they did. See 1 Timothy, or search for &#8220;presbyteros&#8221; in the Greek, such as in Acts 11:30, 14:23 and 15:22. The word &#8220;priest&#8221; itself is a derivative of &#8220;presbyter.&#8221;
. . .
Aside from &#8220;father&#8221;, &#8220;teacher&#8221;, &#8220;apostle,&#8221; &#8220;deacon,&#8221; &#8220;presbyter&#8221; and &#8220;bishop.&#8221; I have Scripture references for all of these. And yes, I am aware of Christ's commands on the subject. I'm also aware of the Apostles using these titles for themselves in various epistles, in apparent contradiction to Christ's commands. It's a matter of understanding Christ's commands within the proper context.
...
See 1 Timothy 3 and 5, where St. Paul lists qualifications for deacons and priests/bishops. Also see in Acts 6, where the Apostles appoint 7 deacons. Also see the aforementioned Acts verses.

But the golden calf was a representation of the God who had ' brought them up from the land of Egypt'. The festival they held was to ADONAI, (Jehovah) the God of their forefathers.
Do you see anything there that would indicate that they had abandoned Jehovah?
IMHO, Aaron's explanation of the incident later in chapter 32 should clear up any confusion about the fact that the Hebrews did, in fact, abandon God.
So Aaron said, &#8220;Do not let the anger of my lord become hot. You know the people, that they are set on evil. 23 For they said to me, &#8216;Make us gods that shall go before us; as for this Moses, the man who brought us out of the land of Egypt, we do not know what has become of him.&#8217; 24 And I said to them, &#8216;Whoever has any gold, let them break it off.&#8217; So they gave it to me, and I cast it into the fire, and this calf came out.&#8221;
It wasn't "Make us a representation of God," but "Make us gods." The Israelites wanted new gods, since they figured the old One wasn't cutting it. Aaron calling the golden calf "Adonai" was elevating this idol to God's status, effectively replacing God with the calf.
 
Last edited:

Shiranui117

Pronounced Shee-ra-noo-ee
Premium Member
If that is what God provided as "scripture", "inspired" by him and made available as part of his "word", then I have no reason to believe that these writings are somehow deficient. That would make God's ability to make truth known to his worshippers, deficient. The Bible as it is known today is available to just about all people, no matter what language they speak. Are you suggesting that it is lacking somehow? Would it's author allow such a thing?
You&#8217;re assuming that the Bible should be treated by Christians the same way that Muslims treat the Qur&#8217;an. God is not the author of the Bible, nor did the Bible fall out of the sky in its complete and perfect form without any human input; He inspired humans to convey His Truth. That means that if God didn&#8217;t put every single thing we need to know in the Bible, then that&#8217;s completely okay. Jesus didn&#8217;t sit down and write a book, He taught His disciples orally. And the disciples passed on what they learned from Jesus orally. Only later did the Apostles (or in some cases their congregations) sit down and write some of the most important parts of what they&#8217;d learned. The Apostles wrote down the Gospels to preserve the memory of what Christ did for us. The various churches kept the Epistles written to them in order to have a guideline for some of the trickier areas of Christian life. Everything else the Apostles taught was passed on orally, all their understanding, all their experience. Remember 2 Thessalonians 2:15: &#8220;Therefore, brethren, stand fast and hold the traditions which you were taught, whether by word or our epistle.&#8221;

I&#8217;m not saying the Bible is lacking, or deficient, or not completely useful and applicable as a rule of Christian faith and practice. What I&#8217;m saying is that the Bible isn&#8217;t the totality of the teaching of the Apostles. Do you really think that over sixty years&#8217; of teaching by dozens of apostles (not just the Twelve, but everyone else who traveled with Jesus) was written down in its entirety into four Gospels, a cursory history book and some epistles? The Bible itself has evidence that it didn&#8217;t contain everything that was taught. John&#8217;s Gospel mentions unrecorded signs and wonders of Jesus at the end of the book. Paul references a teaching of Jesus in Acts 20:35 that we don&#8217;t have in the Gospels. Paul also only briefly mentions a resurrection appearance of Christ to over 500 brethren in 1 Corinthians 15 that we otherwise have no written record of.

OK, I believe that the "church" (that is the consummate teachings of the Christ which were carried on by the apostles) was in existence until the death of the last apostle John at the end of the first century. The apostles were the restraining influence against the apostasy that was foretold to come. (The sowing of the weeds among the wheat)

The 'lawless one' was to be revealed only in due time. According to Jesus' parable, it was to be at the time of the harvest. Only then was there to be an identification and separating of the 'wheat' from the 'weeds'.
Yes, I think we&#8217;re both familiar on each other&#8217;s beliefs regarding whether the Great Apostasy happened or not.

No I don't, because Constantine's "conversion" was not followed by baptism and his having a foot in both camps (paganism and Christianity) did not prove that he was ever truly a Christian. He was an astute politician who 'ran with hare and hunted with hounds'. I do not believe that he is the hero that the church makes him out to be. :(
You're judging Constantine because you think he had a lack of sincere faith and repentance. That is something I&#8217;ll leave between you and God, since I believe it&#8217;s God&#8217;s job to judge others, not ours.

This is an image of Apollo...the Roman sun god. Compare icons of Jesus with this and what do you see? Halos are connected to sun worship, not Christianity.
EDIT: Ahh, one thing that slipped my mind: Christ is the Sun of Righteousness prophesied from Malachi 4:2!

But to you who fear My name
The Sun of Righteousness shall arise
With healing in His wings;

So, it is perfectly appropriate to depict Christ with the halo used by pagans for their sun deities, because Christ is the true Sun of Righteousness, and not the sun gods were merely distorted prophecies and foreshadows of the Christ Who was and is to come! And if Christ is the Sun of Righteousness, then those who shine with the Light of Christ may also be depicted with halos.

So yes, halos were used by pagan sun worshippers before Christ came. But after Christ came, the sun halo was reclaimed and given to the One to Whom it truly belongs, and to those with Him: Christ, the Sun of Righteousness, and His Saints!

LOL, or you're giving the wrong answer.:DThere was no list of exhaustive commands for Christians...never was. They had only two laws that they were obligated to keep. (Matt 22:36-40 NRSVCE)
So what&#8217;re the Sermon on the Mount, every teaching of Jesus, the guidelines from Acts 15, and the advice from all the Epistles? Chopped liver?

Where is it stated in the Bible that the Magi converted to Christianity? It didn't yet exist. They could have converted to Judaism, but the Bible does not say they did anything other than bring gifts to a royal child as was their custom.
There are a lot of things not stated in the Bible, like what the majority of the Apostles did after Pentecost. It&#8217;s Tradition that tells us what the Apostles did, where they went, and how they were all (except for St. John) martyred for being first-hand witnesses to Christ&#8217;s Resurrection.

Some other interesting side points, is that the gifts the Magi gave were expensive ones. When Mary and Joseph presented Jesus at the temple, they could only offer two turtle doves as their sacrifice....this was the offering of the poor. (Luke 2:22-24) This proves that the Magi did not come to a newborn Jesus in the stable.
Matthew says they were in a house by the time of the Magi's arrival. Jesus was probably about two years old, judging by Herod's decree.(Matt 2:16)
I agree that the Magi came to Jesus, Mary and Joseph a while after He was born.

The two turtledoves were for a "burnt offering" and a "sin offering", the priest making atonement for her sin. This is telling Catholic believers that Mary was not sinless, otherwise no offering would have been necessary or acceptable.
Actually, Mary brought the sin offering and the burnt offering for having given birth. Giving birth made one ritually unclean, and in order to be made clean, one had to offer sacrifice. Surely you wouldn&#8217;t say that giving birth is a sin, right?

Let&#8217;s have a look at the part from Luke 2 that you cited:

22 Now when the days of her purification according to the law of Moses were completed, they brought Him to Jerusalem to present Him to the Lord 23 (as it is written in the law of the Lord, &#8220;Every male who opens the womb shall be called holy to the Lord&#8221;), 24 and to offer a sacrifice according to what is said in the law of the Lord, &#8220;A pair of turtledoves or two young pigeons.&#8221;

Here is the relevant portion from Leviticus 12 that addresses this:

Then the Lord spoke to Moses, saying, 2 &#8220;Speak to the children of Israel, saying: &#8216;If a woman has conceived, and borne a male child, then she shall be unclean seven days; as in the days of her customary impurity she shall be unclean. 3 And on the eighth day the flesh of his foreskin shall be circumcised. 4 She shall then continue in the blood of her purification thirty-three days. She shall not touch any hallowed thing, nor come into the sanctuary until the days of her purification are fulfilled.
...
6 &#8216;When the days of her purification are fulfilled, whether for a son or a daughter, she shall bring to the priest a lamb of the first year as a burnt offering, and a young pigeon or a turtledove as a sin offering, to the door of the tabernacle of meeting. 7 Then he shall offer it before the Lord, and make atonement for her. And she shall be clean from the flow of her blood. This is the law for her who has borne a male or a female.

So, IOW, Mary was bringing the sacrifice that was necessary after the days of her purification&#8212;not because she needed to repent of sin, but because she was impure.

I am assuming that EO does not believe that Mary was immaculately conceived?
That&#8217;s correct, no we don&#8217;t. The teaching of the Immaculate Conception was only dogmatized by the Roman Catholic Church in 1854. It&#8217;s interesting to note that Thomas Aquinas, who is THE pre-eminent theologian in the Roman Catholic Church, actually denied the truth of the Immaculate Conception. Part of the reason we EO don&#8217;t accept the dogma is because it assumes the Latin concept of &#8220;original sin,&#8221; which we Orthodox disagree with, especially the part about humanity inheriting the guilt of Adam&#8217;s sin.

That is an assumption, not backed up by scripture at all.
I think you should read this homily of St. John Chrysostom. His argument makes perfect sense. St. Chrysostom: Homilies on the Gospel of St.Matthew - Christian Classics Ethereal Library

I'm afraid that this is not true. God revealed the birth of the Messiah to Jewish shepherds who were out in the fields at night. (not in the winter of December when they kept their flocks indoors.)
Just as Jesus' conception was announced by an angel, so was his birth. (Luke 2:8-14) A heavenly host of angels backed up the announcement....no pagans were necessary.
And when the Magi went home, they doubtless told others what they had experienced, about this star which defied nature, and led them to a small Child in a run-down town Who was the King that the Magi had been waiting for&#8212;thus tilling the soil for the seeds of faith to be planted by the Apostles.
 
Last edited:

Shiranui117

Pronounced Shee-ra-noo-ee
Premium Member
Tradition again...not scripture. The Bible does not say "three wise men". Nor does it ever speak about them becoming "bishops" or any meeting with Thomas.

You see I am very suspicious of things that do not originate with scripture but are solely the traditions of men of later times. The Jews fell victim to this, don't you think it could happen again?
The Jews&#8217; problem was that they kept adding in more and more rules to what you HAD to do. Christian Tradition doesn&#8217;t do that. Rather, Tradition is the living experience of the Church as a whole, of every single Christian who has walked in the true Faith.

Did you know that the account of Jesus and the adulterous woman (John 7:53-8:11) didn&#8217;t exist in early manuscripts of the Gospel of John? It was written into the Gospel several hundred years after the fact by a scribe who wanted to preserve this beautiful story. Had this story not been deliberately inserted, it may have eventually been forgotten, and we wouldn&#8217;t have it today!

Jesus and the woman taken in adultery

Do you think this story should be taken back out of St. John&#8217;s Gospel, since it didn&#8217;t originate with Scripture, but instead was passed down as an oral tradition and wasn't inserted into the Gospel until roughly 300 years after the Gospel was first written? I really want to hear your take on this.

Jehovah has many titles...but not one of them is his personal name. Its meaning is rich and defines who he is, not just what he is.

True, but if you had a room full of fathers, and a child comes in and calls out "daddy!", only one of them will respond to his call as his true father.
And &#8220;Daddy&#8221; is not actually the father&#8217;s name, but is simply what the child calls it. If the child&#8217;s father is really named &#8220;John,&#8221; do you think the child should call his father &#8220;John&#8221;? Would any other father respond to the child&#8217;s call of &#8220;Daddy&#8221; aside from John? Would the child become confused by not calling his father by his father&#8217;s real name?

When we "call on the name of Jehovah" it is a recognition of all that his name means and all that our relationship with him encompasses. We know him and he knows us as his son or daughter.
For the time being, I still won&#8217;t personally use the Tetragrammaton, but this sentiment I agree with wholeheartedly. :)
 

JayJayDee

Avid JW Bible Student
Just a couple of quick questions Shiranui....

Can I ask if the EO uses rosary beads and recites repetitious or set prayers?
:sorry1: I can't watch your video because of download limitations, so will have to rely on a written response. :eek:

Do the Roman Church and the Orthodox Churches sing the same hymns?
Do you both use a Catechism?

In view of Jesus' words at Matt 6:7, 8 what do you think he meant when he said “And when you are praying, do not use meaningless repetition as the Gentiles do, for they suppose that they will be heard for their many words. 8 So do not be like them; for your Father knows what you need before you ask Him." (NASB)

Do you think that God appreciates prayers from the heart even in a few sincere words? Or do you believe that he requires lengthy and wordy recitations by rote from the whole congregation?

Does your church recite creeds and the Lord's Prayer?

What do you call your priest?

Can you tell me why Orthodox priests (or any Catholic priest) wear black robes? And the origin of the Orthodox headwear (if you know.)

And also, with regard to the Eucharist, how often was this to be celebrated? Since Jesus' memorial supper was a replacement for the Jewish Passover (Heb., pe&#8242;sach; Gr., pa&#8242;skha) and this was an annual event, do you believe that this should also be an annual event? If it is to be held more frequently, what do you believe is the basis for this?

Does the EO celebrate Mass like the Roman church? Can you point to anything like this in first century Christianity?

As stated by the Sacred Congregation of Rites of the Roman Catholic Church, the Mass is “A sacrifice in which the Sacrifice of the Cross is perpetuated; —A memorial of the death and resurrection of the Lord, who said ‘do this in memory of me’ (Luke 22:19); —A sacred banquet in which, through the communion of the Body and Blood of the Lord, the People of God share the benefits of the Paschal Sacrifice, renew the New Covenant which God has made with man once for all through the Blood of Christ, and in faith and hope foreshadow and anticipate the eschatological banquet in the kingdom of the Father, proclaiming the Lord’s death ‘till His coming.’” (Eucharisticum Mysterium)

It is the Catholic Church’s way of doing what they understand that Jesus Christ did at the Last Supper....is that correct? Does the EO share this with Roman Catholicism and are there any differences between the two churches in their activity or belief concerning it?

Do you believe in transubstantiation?

I have heard many Catholic people in Australia say that they receive the bread only at Mass and not the wine. Is this true of EO as well? Some say that only the priest drinks the wine.
I attended a Nuptial Mass many years ago and the priests swigged gulps of wine all the way through it. I was really surprised at the amount he drank. Is this usual?
I have also heard that many priests suffer with problems of alcoholism as a consequence of drinking the wine often.

Just curious about these things......
 

Shiranui117

Pronounced Shee-ra-noo-ee
Premium Member
Just a couple of quick questions Shiranui....

Can I ask if the EO uses rosary beads and recites repetitious or set prayers?
We don’t really have a Catholic rosary, but we do use a chotki. We do have standard prayers for morning and evening, and all our liturgical texts (including Scriptural readings) are written and standardized. I wouldn’t call them “repetitious,” though.

:sorry1:I can't watch your video because of download limitations, so will have to rely on a written response. :eek:
Ahh, I know how that is; I have a 10GB monthly limit myself here in Austria. It's all good :)

Well, you can read the full text of the video here. It's set to a very simple chant melody.

As just a small excerpt...
Incorruptible King of all ages, holding in your hand every path of human life through the power of your saving Providence. We thank you for all the good things You do, those we know and those we don't know, for earthly life and the heavenly joy of Your Kingdom to come. Hold us in Your mercy now and ever, we who sing:
Glory to You, O God, unto ages of ages.
Ikos 1
Into the world I was born as a weak, helpless child, but Your Angel spread wings of light over me, guarding my crib. Ever since then, Your love lights all my paths, wonderfully guiding me towards the light of eternity. Gloriously, the generous gifts of Your Providence have been manifest from the very first day. I am thankful to You and with all who have come to know You, call out:
Glory to You, Who called me to life,
Glory to You, Who have shown me the beauty of the universe,
Glory to You, Who have opened before me the sky and the earth as an eternal book of wisdom,
Glory to the eternity of You in the midst of the world of time,
Glory to You for Your hidden and evident goodness,
Glory to You for every sigh of my sadness,
Glory to You for every step of my life, for every moment of joy,
Glory to You, O God, unto ages of ages.

Do the Roman Church and the Orthodox Churches sing the same hymns?
Not really; we have two different traditions. The Romans use the Latin rite, and we Orthodox use the Byzantine rite. There are some overlap in basic areas, but the forms of the Liturgy in each rite are different, as well as hymns, chanting styles, architecture, lectionaries, clerical ranks, etc, etc. Even the theology is different between the Latin and Byzantine rites. I personally find the Byzantine hymns to be richer in meaning and more spiritually nourishing than the Latin Rite; you can literally learn all the elements of basic Orthodox theology just by listening to the hymns and paying attention to what's said in church during the Divine Liturgy.

Do you both use a Catechism?
We don't have one catechism like the Romans do; converts and children learn the faith mostly by going to church and living the life of an Orthodox Christian. Converts can learn about Orthodoxy by reading the writings of the Church Fathers or picking up an introductory book or two about the Church and her teachings (for example, The Orthodox Church and The Orthodox Way)

In view of Jesus' words at Matt 6:7, 8 what do you think he meant (NASB)
We put that in the whole context:
“And when you pray, you shall not be like the hypocrites. For they love to pray standing in the synagogues and on the corners of the streets, that they may be seen by men. Assuredly, I say to you, they have their reward. 6 But you, when you pray, go into your room, and when you have shut your door, pray to your Father who is in the secret place; and your Father who sees in secret will reward you openly. 7 And when you pray, do not use vain repetitions as the heathen do. For they think that they will be heard for their many words.

IOW, "vain repetitions" refers to making really long prayers to appear holy to others. Remember Matthew 23:14: "Woe to you, scribes and Pharisees, hypocrites! For you... for a pretense make long prayers."

So, long prayers are fine--just don't do it in a show-off manner. “Pray without ceasing," the Scriptures say.
[FONT=&quot]

The Prayer of the Heart (Also known as the Jesus Prayer) is a great embodiment of this Scriptural command; it goes, “Lord Jesus Christ, Son of God, have mercy on me, a sinner.” Within this one short prayer is contained the whole of the Gospel, the entire mystery of the Faith. Many Orthodox Christians, as a part of our spiritual practice, try to pray this prayer with every breath, with every step—no matter what we do, we try to work prayer into it, so that everything we do may become a prayer to God, sent up to His glory. By continually praying this prayer in our hearts, we become transformed by prayer, and begin to shine with the Light of Christ. Sin cannot penetrate the fortress of prayer and humility.

Do you think that God appreciates prayers from the heart even in a few sincere words? Or do you believe that he requires lengthy and wordy recitations by rote from the whole congregation?
I'd say a few sincere words of prayer are more pleasing to God than someone going through the motions and saying half-hour long prayers without meaning any of it. If you’re going to be reciting memorized or written prayers, you should concentrate on every word you say, and say it with meaning.

Does your church recite creeds and the Lord's Prayer?
We have one Creed: The Nicene Creed. We pray the Lord’s Prayer at every service, no matter what it is—Liturgy, Vespers, Matins, you name it. We also include the Lord’s Prayer as a part of our personal morning and evening prayers, prayers before meals, as an introduction to saying an Akathist or Canon, etc.

What do you call your priest?
"Father." Paul considered himself the spiritual father of the Corinthians, as can be seen in 1 Corinthians 4:15: For though you might have ten thousand instructors in Christ, yet you do not have many fathers; for in Christ Jesus I have begotten you through the gospel.

Paul also considered himself the spiritual father of other specific people:

1 Corinthians 4:17 For this reason I have sent Timothy to you, who is my beloved and faithful son in the Lord, who will remind you of my ways in Christ, as I teach everywhere in every church.

In Philemon 1:10 I appeal to you for my son Onesimus, whom I have begotten while in my chains,

In Hebrews 12:9, we see this also: Furthermore, we have had human fathers who corrected us, and we paid them respect. Shall we not much more readily be in subjection to the Father of spirits and live?

Peter also considers Mark his spiritual son in 1 Peter 5:13, She who is in Babylon, elect together with you, greets you; and so does Mark my son.

(cont)
[/FONT]
 

Shiranui117

Pronounced Shee-ra-noo-ee
Premium Member
(cont)

Can you tell me why Orthodox priests (or any Catholic priest) wear black robes?
The black cassocks are borrowed from the monastic garb (all Catholic priests are required to be celibate/monks since the late 1200's, and many Orthodox priests are also celibate). Married priests in the Orthodox Church generally wear a white cassock.

And the origin of the Orthodox headwear (if you know.)
A lot of it was borrowed from the late Byzantine imperial/noble dress, and was adapted after the Fall of Constantinople in 1453.

And also, with regard to the Eucharist, how often was this to be celebrated? Since Jesus' memorial supper was a replacement for the Jewish Passover (Heb., pe&#8242;sach; Gr., pa&#8242;skha) and this was an annual event, do you believe that this should also be an annual event? If it is to be held more frequently, what do you believe is the basis for this?
We hold it weekly, because every Sunday is like a little Pascha. Scripture states that the Christians broke bread (i.e. celebrated the Eucharist) on the first day of the week. Christ rose from the dead on Sunday, and so that is when we have our Liturgy. The Eucharist was the central act of early Christian worship, and it&#8217;s still the focus of Catholic and Orthodox worship today. In fact, the celebration of the Eucharist was the means by which the Church was united; St. Ignatius talks about this extensively. When the Corinthians didn't celebrate the Lord's Supper on a regular and often basis, St. Paul actually chewed them out for it!

Does the EO celebrate Mass like the Roman church?
Our Liturgy more or less has the same basic skeleton as the Roman Mass, but there are a LOT of differences in the way things are done.

Can you point to anything like this in first century Christianity?
As a matter of fact, yes I can. For some general background on the Christian liturgy, you can go here. You can also go here to see the connections between Christian and Jewish worship&#8212;such as blessings/litanies, benedictions, readings from the Psalms, spontaneous prayers being developed by the people and later standardized, etc, etc. You&#8217;ll see that early Christianity was very much liturgical and derived from previous Jewish practices--with native Christian elements added in (i.e. the Eucharist).

As stated by the Sacred Congregation of Rites of the Roman Catholic Church, the Mass is
&#8220;A sacrifice in which the Sacrifice of the Cross is perpetuated; &#8212;A memorial of the death and resurrection of the Lord, who said &#8216;do this in memory of me&#8217; (Luke 22:19); &#8212;A sacred banquet in which, through the communion of the Body and Blood of the Lord, the People of God share the benefits of the Paschal Sacrifice, renew the New Covenant which God has made with man once for all through the Blood of Christ, and in faith and hope foreshadow and anticipate the eschatological banquet in the kingdom of the Father, proclaiming the Lord&#8217;s death &#8216;till His coming.&#8217;&#8221; (Eucharisticum Mysterium)

It is the Catholic Church&#8217;s way of doing what they understand that Jesus Christ did at the Last Supper....is that correct? Does the EO share this with Roman Catholicism and are there any differences between the two churches in their activity or belief concerning it?
We Orthodox would most likely agree with that statement, though I would make a few additions/amendments:

In the Orthodox Faith, it is the Resurrection of Christ that takes center stage. We stand during Liturgy on Sunday, because standing is the posture of the Resurrection. It might help to think of it this way: In German, "Resurrection" is Auferstehung. The root of Auferstehung is stehen, which is the German verb, "To stand." The reason we celebrate the Eucharist every Sunday, is
1: We obtain much grace from partaking of the Body and Blood of our Lord, God and Savior Jesus Christ;
2: Christ died and rose from the dead to unite us to Himself and bring us to God. One of the most intimate ways of connecting with Christ is to have His Body and Blood inside us.

Do you believe in transubstantiation?
Not exactly. We teach and believe the Real Presence, that Christ is really and truly present in the Eucharist. When we partake of the Eucharist, we are truly partaking of the Body and Blood of Christ. We take this from Christ's words in the Synoptic Gospels and in 1 Corinthians 12, "Take, eat, this is My Body," and "Take, drink, this is My Blood". Our belief in this also comes from 1 Corinthians 12:27-29, 27 Therefore whoever eats this bread or drinks this cup of the Lord in an unworthy manner will be guilty of the body and blood of the Lord. 28 But let a man examine himself, and so let him eat of the bread and drink of the cup. 29 For he who eats and drinks in an unworthy manner eats and drinks judgment to himself, not discerning the Lord&#8217;s body.

This belief in the Real Presence of the Eucharist goes all the way back to the first century. Ignatius of Antioch (died roughly 110 AD), the personal student of St. John the Apostle, and the third bishop of the Church of Antioch (St. Peter himself being the first), had this to say about the Eucharist in his Epistle to the Smyrnaeans: They abstain from the Eucharist and from prayer, because they confess not the Eucharist to be the flesh of our Saviour Jesus Christ, which suffered for our sins, and which the Father, of His goodness, raised up again. Those, therefore, who speak against this gift of God, incur death in the midst of their disputes.
Unlike the Romans who just have to have a concrete answer to almost every mystery of the Faith (AKA systematic theology, one of the things that most Western Christians have inherited), we Orthodox are content to leaving as a mystery the nature of how the Real Presence of the Eucharist comes out.

I have heard many Catholic people in Australia say that they receive the bread only at Mass and not the wine. Is this true of EO as well? Some say that only the priest drinks the wine.
Not at all. In the Orthodox Church, we distribute the Body and Blood together on a spoon; in other words, the Body of Christ is put into the chalice with the Blood. In non-believer terms, the bread is soaked in the wine, and tiny pieces are served out on a spoon.

The priest/deacon do, however, consume all of what's left.

I attended a Nuptial Mass many years ago and the priests swigged gulps of wine all the way through it. I was really surprised at the amount he drank. Is this usual?

I have also heard that many priests suffer with problems of alcoholism as a consequence of drinking the wine often.
I've never heard of this. The priest shouldn't be "taking swigs" of the Blood until after serving all the parishioners who are receiving the Eucharist. But do keep in mind that water is poured into the wine, since both blood and water came out of Christ's side (John 19:34). So it's not like you're going to get drunk by drinking from the chalice. If the priest is an alcoholic, it's not because he drinks the Blood.

Just curious about these things......
Sure. If you're curious about anything else about Holy Orthodoxy, please feel free to ask! :D
 
Last edited:
Top