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Mark1615

Member
Buttons* said:
You shouldnt hit girls!
*tries to think of a Bible question*
umm.... The bible (OT mostly) mentiones Giants. What happened to them?
First off, there are three views (that I'm aware of anyway) as to the origin of these giants.

The first view: Men from the line of Seth - these giant men were marrying ungodly women from the line of Cain in Gen. 4 and the line of Seth in Gen. 5. Many people hold this view partly because of Matthew 22:30, which says that angels do not marry.

The second view: Dynastic Kings - these kings were creating polygamous harems. These rulers are called "sons of the Most High" in Psalm 82:6. However, polygamy is a sin contrary to God's stated intended design (Gen. 2:22-24).

The third view: Fallen Angels or Nephilim - these fallen angels procreated with human women. The Hebrew term "bene elohim" which means "sons of God" is only used of angels in Scriptures (Job 1:6; 38:7; Ps. 89:6). The sons of God are contrasted with the daughters of men (Gen. 6:4). This view could explain 2 Peter 2:4 and Jude 6.

There is much more to each of these views, so if you are truly interested do some research. It's really interesting.

Anyway, I don't know where these giants went, or if they even are truly gone. Some say that they died off with Noah's flood, but there is mention of them in various books after the flood. Others say that the evil spirits that indwelt in them live on in other forms. But I really don't know what happened to these particular giants.:sarcastic
 

Mark1615

Member
Ibrahim Al-Amin said:
Friend, the brackets are interpretation. You have interpreted Logos to Word to Jesus. Remove "Jesus" per your interpretation, and you get, "In the beginning was the Logos, and the Logos was with God, and the Logos was God...and the Logos was made flesh, and dwelt among us." Christianity bases its entire religion on your brackets, notably extra-textual, that interprets Jesus as the Logos.

The Bible does not state, "...and Jesus was God."

As interpretation is human, and humans err, then is it not conceivable that ancient Christians interpreted the Bible inaccurately?
I know the Bible is accurate in the same way that Muslims know the Old Testament is accurate.
 

Mark1615

Member
Anastasios said:
  1. If Jesus's mission was to the lost sheep of Israel, why was it confined to Palestine where only two of the original tribes had settled? Did that mean that Jesus had failed in his mission?
  2. Why should Jesus specifically forbid, on the one hand, preaching the Gospel to the Gentiles (Matthew 7:6, 15:24, 26) and yet on the other, tell the disciples to teach all the nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, the Son and the Holy Ghost? (Matthew 28:19)
  3. Why did Jesus prohibit the Gospel from being preached to the Gentiles during his ministry (Matthew 10:5, 7:6, 15:24-26) but after his 'resurrection' tell them to preach the Gospel to the whole world? (Mark 16:15)

    If Jesus really had made the latter statement, why was there such a fierce debate within the early Church (and particularly between Peter and Paul) as to whether the Gospel should be preached to the Gentiles? (Acts 15:6-30)
  4. Out of all the signs that Jesus could have given about himself, he chose to give the sign of Jonah: This generation is an evil generation; it seeks a sign but no sign shall be given to it except the sign of Jonah. (Luke 11:29, Matthew 12:39, Matthew 16) Jonah was swallowed alive by a whale and remained in its belly alive for three days. For Jesus to have properly fulfilled the prophecy, he would need to enter the tomb alive and come out alive. Why should Jesus give this, of all signs, if he was to die and be resurrected?
  5. If Jesus's message was for the whole of mankind, why did he forbid his disciples to preach to the Gentiles? (Matthew 10:5-6)
  6. When Jesus was asked what the only way was to true salvation, he replied: keep the Commandments (Matthew 19:17). The first of the Commandments was to believe in the Oneness of God (Exodus 20:3). Why did Jesus answer so if he believed in and was part of the Trinity? Why did he not refer to the Father, the Son, and the Holy Ghost?
  7. Jesus said that he had not come to change the Law of Moses (Matthew 5:17). The Law of Moses teaches that there is one God (Exodus 20:3). If Jesus was introducing the concept of Trinity, why did he not say that he was changing the Law of Moses or introducing a different understanding of it?
  8. Jesus prophesied that men of his generation would not pass away without witnessing his second coming and the falling of stars (Mark 9:1, 13:30). Why was this prophecy unfulfilled? Why was it that Jesus did not return within the lifetime of his generation?
  9. Why did Jesus forbid the disciples from calling people fools yet called the Jewish leaders with names like vipers and children of adultery? Is it conceivable that a Divine Being would behave in this way?
  10. According to Luke, when the Jews tried Jesus they asked him Are you the son of God? Jesus replied you say that I am (Luke 22:70) which could mean: you say that I am but I do not. If his divinity was something he came to tell the world, why did he not plainly say yes instead of couching his answer in ambiguous terms?
  11. In the Old Testament, the term Son of God was applied to David (Psalms 89:27), the nation of Israel (Exodus 4:22), the children of Israel (Psalms 82:6), and Solomon (1 Chronicles 22:10). Jesus also used it for the peacemakers (Matthew 5:9). If Jesus was referring to himself as the Son of God in the literal sense, why did he not make it clear that he was differentiating between a symbolic reference and a literal meaning of the term?
  12. Jesus was the Messiah, the fulfillment of Old Testament prophecies. He frequently made reference to himself as the suffering servant foretold in the Book of Isaiah (Matthew 8:17 & Isaiah 53:4; Luke 2:30 & Isaiah 52:10; Luke 22:37 & Isaiah 53:12). The Messiah of the Old Testament was, however, promised by God that he would not be killed (Psalms 34:19, Isaiah 53:10). How was it, therefore, that the Jews had succeeded in killing the Messiah if Jesus died on the cross?
  13. If Jesus knew that Judas was going to betray him, why did he continue to permit him as a disciple? Why did he not tell the other disciples so that Judas could be excluded from his closest circle of followers?
  14. If Jesus knew that one of his disciples would betray him, why should he say that all twelve disciples would sit upon twelve thrones? (Matthew 19:28)
  15. If Jesus knew that he was to die on the cross, why did he spend all night praying in the Garden of Gethsemane seeking deliverance: Father if it is possible may this cup be taken from me? (Matthew 26:39)
  16. Jesus had taught that man's prayers are answered (Matthew 21:22). Why was not Jesus's prayer answered in the Garden of Gethsemane? What effect would this incident have on the faith of his disciples and followers to see that a prayer had not been answered contrary to what Jesus had taught?
  17. If Jesus believed that his prayer in the Garden of Gethsemane would not be heard, why did he tell his disciples earlier that prayers are answered?: Would any of you who are fathers give your son a stone when he asked for bread (Matthew 7:9-10) which means that God hears the prayers of man more than a father answers the wishes of his children and Ask and it will be given to you; seek and you will find; knock and it will be opened to you. And whatever you ask in your prayers, you will receive, if you have faith. (Matthew 21:22; John 11:41,42)
  18. If Jesus's prayer in the Garden of Gethsemane was not to be heard, why was it something that he wanted the disciples to witness? If the prayer was not to be heard, what useful purpose does this story serve?
  19. Why should Matthew, Mark and Luke all report (Matthew 26:39, Mark 14:36, Luke 22:42) that Jesus asked for the cup of suffering to be passed if possible yet John (John 18:11) reports that Jesus hastened for the crucifixion saying shall I not drink the cup the Father hath given me?
  20. Why did Pontius Pilate just simply ignore his wife's plea to have nothing to do with Jesus on account of her bad dream? (Matthew 27:19) If the very mission of Jesus was to suffer death, why should God Almighty show a dream to Pilate's wife which would cause her to try and persuade her husband to release Jesus? Would not that appear to counter God's own plan?
  21. If Pilate really wanted Jesus to die on the cross, why would he fix the crucifixion on a Friday evening knowing that the Jews would have to take him down before Sabbath and that such a little time on the cross was insufficient for him to die?
  22. If Jesus knew all along that he was destined to be crucified to death (indeed if that was his purpose in life), why did he exclaim on the cross Eli, Eli Lama Sabachthani meaning my God my God why hast thou forsaken me? (Matthew 27:46)
  23. If Jesus was about to die, how was he able to say in a clear loud and audible voice that he was thirsty? (John 19:28)
  24. Why are Jesus's words on the cross: Eli, Eli Lama Sabachthani (Matthew 27:46) reported in their original Aramaic form? Could it be that Jesus's helpless cry left such a vivid impression of a man seemingly bereft of hope that anyone who heard them would remember the exact words?
  25. Vinegar is often considered to have a stimulating effect, rather similar to smelling salts. Why, in Jesus's case, did it suddenly lead to his death? (John 19:29, 30)
  26. How could an onlooker tell the difference between a man on the cross who had died and a man who had fainted (Mark 15:39) particularly when it is reported that it was dark at that time? (Mark 15:33, Matthew 27:45, Luke 23:44)
  27. If Jesus was dead when he was removed from the cross, why did his body release blood and water, since blood does not flow at all from a dead body? (John 19:34)
  28. Why did Jesus die before the other two who were crucified with him even though the legs of the other two were broken to hasten death? (John 19:32)
  29. It is reported that dead saints came out of their graves and made themselves known to many (Matthew 27:52). When the Jews saw this, why did they not immediately profess faith in Jesus? Where did these saints go? Who did they see? Why is there no account of this story elsewhere other than in Matthew's Gospel?
  30. If the above story of saints rising from the dead is not based on an actual historical event, what other statements are there in the Gospels which are not based on actual historical facts?
  31. Jesus said that the killing of prophets ended with the killing of Zacharias (Matthew 23:35-36). How was it, therefore, that the Jews had succeeded in killing another prophet?
  32. Crucifixion was meant to be an accursed death (Deuteronomy 21:23). If Jesus was crucified, did that mean he also suffered an accursed death?
  33. Why was it that a Roman soldier was so readily prepared to allow Joseph (a subjected citizen) to take down Jesus's body from the cross without checking and without Joseph having any apparent lawful authority?
  34. Why is there is no direct account by Joseph of Arimathea or Nicodemus that Jesus was dead when he was taken down from the cross? Surely, this eye-witness account would have settled the matter beyond dispute?
  35. Why should Joseph of Arimathea and Nicodemus take so much trouble to recover the body of Jesus when this would have been the duty of the nearest relative?
First, much frubals to your thoughtful questions! I'll TRY to answer them all. Please be patient.
 

Mark1615

Member
Anastasios said:
  1. If Jesus's mission was to the lost sheep of Israel, why was it confined to Palestine where only two of the original tribes had settled? Did that mean that Jesus had failed in his mission?
Jesus' mission wasn't only to Israel, but to the entire world (John 3:16). Thus, He didn't fail at His mission.
 

Mark1615

Member
Anastasios said:
2. Why should Jesus specifically forbid, on the one hand, preaching the Gospel to the Gentiles (Matthew 7:6, 15:24, 26) and yet on the other, tell the disciples to teach all the nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, the Son and the Holy Ghost? (Matthew 28:19)
I think you should read those Matthew chapters in their entirety. Your context is off. Chapter 7 is saying not to speak to those who may "trample" the gospel. This refers to anyone - Jew or Gentile. Chapter 15 is speaking to a Caananite woman, not a Jew. Yet, Jesus said that because of her faith, her daughter was healed.

Always remember: CONTEXT, CONTEXT, CONTEXT.
 

Mark1615

Member
Anastasios said:
3. Why did Jesus prohibit the Gospel from being preached to the Gentiles during his ministry (Matthew 10:5, 7:6, 15:24-26) but after his 'resurrection' tell them to preach the Gospel to the whole world? (Mark 16:15)
Jesus told His disciples to preach to the Jews FIRST. These people were His first priority, because they are God's chosen people. But either way, all people can come to know Christ regardless of their background.
 

Mark1615

Member
Anastasios said:
3. Why did Jesus prohibit the Gospel from being preached to the Gentiles during his ministry (Matthew 10:5, 7:6, 15:24-26) but after his 'resurrection' tell them to preach the Gospel to the whole world? (Mark 16:15)

If Jesus really had made the latter statement, why was there such a fierce debate within the early Church (and particularly between Peter and Paul) as to whether the Gospel should be preached to the Gentiles? (Acts 15:6-30)
Oops, I missed the second part of your queston. As you pointed out in Acts 15, the debate was whether or not Gentiles had to become Jewish first to be saved. But as Peter points out, Jesus knows the hearts of Gentiles and Jews and had put no difference between them, purifying the Gentiles by faith.
 

Mark1615

Member
Anastasios said:
4 Out of all the signs that Jesus could have given about himself, he chose to give the sign of Jonah: This generation is an evil generation; it seeks a sign but no sign shall be given to it except the sign of Jonah. (Luke 11:29, Matthew 12:39, Matthew 16) Jonah was swallowed alive by a whale and remained in its belly alive for three days. For Jesus to have properly fulfilled the prophecy, he would need to enter the tomb alive and come out alive. Why should Jesus give this, of all signs, if he was to die and be resurrected?
Are you arguing over the fact that Jesus didn't enter the tomb alive like Jonah did in the fish, but dead? I would argue that resurrecting oneself from the dead is quite a sign indeed, even if He didn't follow Jonah's example exactly.
 

Mark1615

Member
Anastasios said:
5. If Jesus's message was for the whole of mankind, why did he forbid his disciples to preach to the Gentiles? (Matthew 10:5-6)
I think you already asked this question, which was answered.
 

Mark1615

Member
Anastasios said:
6. When Jesus was asked what the only way was to true salvation, he replied: keep the Commandments (Matthew 19:17). The first of the Commandments was to believe in the Oneness of God (Exodus 20:3). Why did Jesus answer so if he believed in and was part of the Trinity? Why did he not refer to the Father, the Son, and the Holy Ghost?
Because He is God. Jesus, the Father, and the Holy Spirit are all part of one God - Yahweh. See John 14:6-13.
 

Mark1615

Member
Anastasios said:
7. Jesus said that he had not come to change the Law of Moses (Matthew 5:17). The Law of Moses teaches that there is one God (Exodus 20:3). If Jesus was introducing the concept of Trinity, why did he not say that he was changing the Law of Moses or introducing a different understanding of it?
Jesus couldn't say that He was changing the Law or introducing a different understanding of it, because He didn't change the Law. Jesus goes on to explain that He came to fulfill the Law, which means that in essence He is introducing a new concept - that being He is God. See John 14:6-13.
 

Mark1615

Member
Anastasios said:
8. Jesus prophesied that men of his generation would not pass away without witnessing his second coming and the falling of stars (Mark 9:1, 13:30). Why was this prophecy unfulfilled? Why was it that Jesus did not return within the lifetime of his generation?
I am not completely sure what Jesus meant by "generation." Maybe the Greek meaning is different. However, I do know that most, if not all, Bible scholars believe this prophecy to refer to the last days (the Tribulation), which of course has yet to happen.
 

Mark1615

Member
Anastasios said:
9. Why did Jesus forbid the disciples from calling people fools yet called the Jewish leaders with names like vipers and children of adultery? Is it conceivable that a Divine Being would behave in this way?
Jesus was warning against hypocrisy. Since Jesus is perfect, I quess He has the right to do so. Jesus was pointing out a fact: that the Jewish leaders were being hypocrites - being religious only on the outside.
 

Mark1615

Member
Anastasios said:
10. According to Luke, when the Jews tried Jesus they asked him Are you the son of God? Jesus replied you say that I am (Luke 22:70) which could mean: you say that I am but I do not. If his divinity was something he came to tell the world, why did he not plainly say yes instead of couching his answer in ambiguous terms?
Jesus gives us the answer in verse 67 and 68.
 

Mark1615

Member
Anastasios said:
11. In the Old Testament, the term Son of God was applied to David (Psalms 89:27), the nation of Israel (Exodus 4:22), the children of Israel (Psalms 82:6), and Solomon (1 Chronicles 22:10). Jesus also used it for the peacemakers (Matthew 5:9). If Jesus was referring to himself as the Son of God in the literal sense, why did he not make it clear that he was differentiating between a symbolic reference and a literal meaning of the term?
I don't think that Jesus was referring to a literal interpretation of the word "Son." You have to look at the context of the time back then. Jesus was speaking to people who knew the Old Testament and therefore knew about Yahweh and that He was one God. In John 14:6-13, Jesus clearly states that He and God are one.
 

Mark1615

Member
Anastasios said:
12. Jesus was the Messiah, the fulfillment of Old Testament prophecies. He frequently made reference to himself as the suffering servant foretold in the Book of Isaiah (Matthew 8:17 & Isaiah 53:4; Luke 2:30 & Isaiah 52:10; Luke 22:37 & Isaiah 53:12). The Messiah of the Old Testament was, however, promised by God that he would not be killed (Psalms 34:19, Isaiah 53:10). How was it, therefore, that the Jews had succeeded in killing the Messiah if Jesus died on the cross?
God did deliver Jesus out of all of His afflictions - Jesus never sinned. However, Jesus had to die in order to fulfill the Messianic prophecy. Also, the meaning of "died" needs to be looked at, because Jesus died, but didn't stay that way.
 

Mark1615

Member
Anastasios said:
13. If Jesus knew that Judas was going to betray him, why did he continue to permit him as a disciple? Why did he not tell the other disciples so that Judas could be excluded from his closest circle of followers?
Because Jesus had to fulfill the Messianic prophecy by dying, which included Judas who betrayed Jesus for 30 pieces of silver.
 

Mark1615

Member
Anastasios said:
14. If Jesus knew that one of his disciples would betray him, why should he say that all twelve disciples would sit upon twelve thrones? (Matthew 19:28)
Jesus said "to you which have followed me..." Maybe Jesus was referring only to those that truly love Him, leaving out Judas. I really don't know.

Many things in the Bible are included to confuse those who won't believe.
 

Bishadi

Active Member
Mark.... I see the people of Islam are working on you and your doing a fine job.

I have a simple thought that immediately came to mind; what is more important the message, "follow the rules" or "go ahead, I'm dying for your sins, anyway"....?

My point is as a "prophet" would it not be possible that he was issuing a message versus suggesting he was "dying for our sins?"

The reason I suggest this is because in other works he clearly eludes accepting the claim of being "a" or 'the' messiah. Try the gospel according to thomas ... http://www.gnosis.org/naghamm/gthlamb.html

I point this direction because you clearly enjoy Jesus and these are supposed to be quotes from a 400AD papyrus eliminating the 1600 years of biblical, let's say, "adjustments"

Nothing is negative, you are holding your own and although a little overboard, on a very similar path as I was 20+ years back, and the more you read the better you will fare.

Just keep in mind as they added to the Bible to account for new understanding, be prepared for additional reading as required.
 
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