JayJayDee
Avid JW Bible Student
I believe that God is Yahweh, (or Jehovah) the Father, who was the one true God of ancient Israel. I believe that he is still the same God that was worshipped in ancient times and that he is, and always has been, one entity and not part of a triune godhead.
As to his name....
Exodus 3:13-15: When Moses was first commissioned to liberate Israel from bondage in Egypt.... "Moses said to the [true] God: Suppose I am now come to the sons of Israel and I do say to them, The God of your forefathers has sent me to you, and they do say to me, What is his name? What shall I say to them?  At this God said to Moses: I SHALL PROVE TO BE WHAT I SHALL PROVE TO BE. [Heb., ה ר ה (Eh·yeh′ Asher′ Eh·yeh′ comes from the Heb. verb ha·yah′, become; prove to be. Here Eh·yeh′ is in the imperfect state, first person sing., meaning I shall become; or, I shall prove to be. The reference here is not to Gods self-existence but to what he has in mind to become toward others.]
And he added: This is what you are to say to the sons of Israel, I SHALL PROVE TO BE has sent me to you.  Then God said once more to Moses:
This is what you are to say to the sons of Israel, Jehovah the God of YOUR forefathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac and the God of Jacob, has sent me to you. This is my name to time indefinite, and this is the memorial of me to generation after generation." (NWT. See also Lev 11:45; Isa 12:3-5; 42:8)
Most modern Bible translations follow the Jewish custom of substituting the divine name with 'adonai' or 'elohim', meaning "Lord" or "God" instead of translating God's personal name where it appears in the Hebrew text.
Since the Bible sets forth the sacred will of the Sovereign Lord of the universe, it would be an affront to his majesty and authority, to omit or hide his unique name, which plainly occurs in the Hebrew text nearly 7,000 times as יהוה (YHWH).
For this reason, I use a translation that places God's name back where it belongs. Both the ASV and the NWT restore the divine name into the main body of their text.
When Jesus came to earth, he did not change God's identity. Jesus worshipped Jehovah too. He was sent by God to redeem mankind, but the son is not God.
Even when he returned to heaven, he still referred to Jehovah "my God".
"He who overcomes, I will make him a pillar in the temple of My God, and he shall go out no more. I will write on him the name of My God and the name of the city of My God, the New Jerusalem, which comes down out of heaven from My God. And I will write on him My new name." (Rev 3:12)
I believe that the Jesus is 'the image of his Father'. He is what the Bible calls him, "the son of God" (Matt 13:13, 14) and was "with" God "in the beginning" as John 1:1 says.
"In the beginning was 'the' Word, and 'the' Word was with God, and the Word was God." (KJV)
Since there is not punctuation or capital letters in the Greek it literally reads, "in beginning was the word and the word was toward the god and god was the word".
The use of the definite article "the" is what tells us who was God and who was with God and was god-like.
Jump to John 1:18 and you will see this..."No man hath seen God at any time, the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him." (KJV)
The word rendered "son" in verse 18 is the same word rendered "God" in the first verse.
If both of these verses were rendered consistently, then John 1:1 should read, "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was (the) Son."
OR ..."No man hath seen God at any time, the only begotten god, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him." (KJV)
Since Almighty God cannot be begotten, but his son was, the inconsistency confuses the true identity of God with his created son. (Col 1:15-17; Rev 3:14)
In his prophesy concerning the Messiah, Isaiah calls him Mighty God (not Almighty) and Prince of Peace. (A prince is the son of a king.) He is also called Eternal Father (and we know that the son is NOT the Father, so the meaning of this expression is not saying that he is God.) (Isa 9:6, 7) Reasoning on what the rest of the scriptures say, reveals that all is not as it first appears.
There is no definite article "the" in connection with the second use of "God" in John 1:1. That means that one is "THE" God and the other is also a god (literally a mighty one).
Strong's Greek: 3588.
The title god is not exclusive to the Father. (1 Cor 8:5, 6)
It is the Word who was "with [the] God" who became flesh, not "the" God himself. He was an "only begotten son from a father".(John1:14).
That is what I believe about the identity of "the only true God", which is what Jesus called his Father in John 17:3.
What is your view Katzpur? :trampo:
As to his name....
Exodus 3:13-15: When Moses was first commissioned to liberate Israel from bondage in Egypt.... "Moses said to the [true] God: Suppose I am now come to the sons of Israel and I do say to them, The God of your forefathers has sent me to you, and they do say to me, What is his name? What shall I say to them?  At this God said to Moses: I SHALL PROVE TO BE WHAT I SHALL PROVE TO BE. [Heb., ה ר ה (Eh·yeh′ Asher′ Eh·yeh′ comes from the Heb. verb ha·yah′, become; prove to be. Here Eh·yeh′ is in the imperfect state, first person sing., meaning I shall become; or, I shall prove to be. The reference here is not to Gods self-existence but to what he has in mind to become toward others.]
And he added: This is what you are to say to the sons of Israel, I SHALL PROVE TO BE has sent me to you.  Then God said once more to Moses:
This is what you are to say to the sons of Israel, Jehovah the God of YOUR forefathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac and the God of Jacob, has sent me to you. This is my name to time indefinite, and this is the memorial of me to generation after generation." (NWT. See also Lev 11:45; Isa 12:3-5; 42:8)
Most modern Bible translations follow the Jewish custom of substituting the divine name with 'adonai' or 'elohim', meaning "Lord" or "God" instead of translating God's personal name where it appears in the Hebrew text.
Since the Bible sets forth the sacred will of the Sovereign Lord of the universe, it would be an affront to his majesty and authority, to omit or hide his unique name, which plainly occurs in the Hebrew text nearly 7,000 times as יהוה (YHWH).
For this reason, I use a translation that places God's name back where it belongs. Both the ASV and the NWT restore the divine name into the main body of their text.
When Jesus came to earth, he did not change God's identity. Jesus worshipped Jehovah too. He was sent by God to redeem mankind, but the son is not God.
Even when he returned to heaven, he still referred to Jehovah "my God".
"He who overcomes, I will make him a pillar in the temple of My God, and he shall go out no more. I will write on him the name of My God and the name of the city of My God, the New Jerusalem, which comes down out of heaven from My God. And I will write on him My new name." (Rev 3:12)
I believe that the Jesus is 'the image of his Father'. He is what the Bible calls him, "the son of God" (Matt 13:13, 14) and was "with" God "in the beginning" as John 1:1 says.
"In the beginning was 'the' Word, and 'the' Word was with God, and the Word was God." (KJV)
Since there is not punctuation or capital letters in the Greek it literally reads, "in beginning was the word and the word was toward the god and god was the word".
The use of the definite article "the" is what tells us who was God and who was with God and was god-like.
Jump to John 1:18 and you will see this..."No man hath seen God at any time, the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him." (KJV)
The word rendered "son" in verse 18 is the same word rendered "God" in the first verse.
If both of these verses were rendered consistently, then John 1:1 should read, "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was (the) Son."
OR ..."No man hath seen God at any time, the only begotten god, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him." (KJV)
Since Almighty God cannot be begotten, but his son was, the inconsistency confuses the true identity of God with his created son. (Col 1:15-17; Rev 3:14)
In his prophesy concerning the Messiah, Isaiah calls him Mighty God (not Almighty) and Prince of Peace. (A prince is the son of a king.) He is also called Eternal Father (and we know that the son is NOT the Father, so the meaning of this expression is not saying that he is God.) (Isa 9:6, 7) Reasoning on what the rest of the scriptures say, reveals that all is not as it first appears.
There is no definite article "the" in connection with the second use of "God" in John 1:1. That means that one is "THE" God and the other is also a god (literally a mighty one).
Strong's Greek: 3588.
The title god is not exclusive to the Father. (1 Cor 8:5, 6)
It is the Word who was "with [the] God" who became flesh, not "the" God himself. He was an "only begotten son from a father".(John1:14).
That is what I believe about the identity of "the only true God", which is what Jesus called his Father in John 17:3.
What is your view Katzpur? :trampo: