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Old School

jamaesi

jamaesi

To Save A Lamb
I was sort of wondering where Jesus nulled the Old Testament. I hear plenty of people say that- I've parroted it myself, but I have never really been again to find a clear explaination of it.

Could someone clear this up?



The only verse(s) I ever really find is these from Matthew 5... and it seems to be the opposite of nulling it.


<H5>The Fulfillment of the Law
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17"Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them. 18I tell you the truth, until heaven and earth disappear, not the smallest letter, not the least stroke of a pen, will by any means disappear from the Law until everything is accomplished. 19Anyone who breaks one of the least of these commandments and teaches others to do the same will be called least in the kingdom of heaven, but whoever practices and teaches these commands will be called great in the kingdom of heaven. 20For I tell you that unless your righteousness surpasses that of the Pharisees and the teachers of the law, you will certainly not enter the kingdom of heaven.
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</H5>
 
Fluffy

Fluffy

A fool
I interpret that passage as Jesus saying "well yeah I am basically saying that the law should be abolished but I'm not going to come out and say it since what I am saying does it pretty much anyway and this way Christians are less likely to get persecuted and Jews are more likely to want to follow me"

The key bit is 20 since Jesus offers us a way of becoming more righteous than the teachers of law, thereby nullifying the law but without saying so. I felt it was pretty damn clever of him.
 
TashaN

TashaN

Veteran Member
Premium Member
Fluffy said:
I interpret that passage as Jesus saying "well yeah I am basically saying that the law should be abolished but I'm not going to come out and say it since what I am saying does it pretty much anyway and this way Christians are less likely to get persecuted and Jews are more likely to want to follow me"

The key bit is 20 since Jesus offers us a way of becoming more righteous than the teachers of law, thereby nullifying the law but without saying so. I felt it was pretty damn clever of him.
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Some may say that Jesus was lying "God forbid". I believe Jesus (PBUH) was telling the truth because he was telling his folowers "to keep the commandments" which is the jewish law excatly. Moreover, a religious and pure Messenger of God like Jesus would not lie about it because prophets and apostle of God never lie.
 
jeffrey

jeffrey

†ßig Dog†
I interpret that passage as Jesus saying he was not doing away with the law, it was that people had mis-interpreted the law for years, adding things that where not meant to be, such as healing on the Sabbath, or picking a grain of wheat and eating it. He simplified it.
 
Pah

Pah

Uber all member
Fluffy said:
I interpret that passage as Jesus saying "well yeah I am basically saying that the law should be abolished but I'm not going to come out and say it since what I am saying does it pretty much anyway and this way Christians are less likely to get persecuted and Jews are more likely to want to follow me"

The key bit is 20 since Jesus offers us a way of becoming more righteous than the teachers of law, thereby nullifying the law but without saying so. I felt it was pretty damn clever of him.
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It might be that righteousness is connected to his First and Second commandments he spoke of and of the guidelines contained in the Sermon on the Mount. Following the old law and the new law might just well be neccessary.

It really makes little sense to include the Old Testament law in the Christian canons if they were not to be followed.
 
J

jonny

Well-Known Member
I get it from the Book of Mormon. I don't think I've ever looked for a scripture on this subject in the Bible

3 Nephi 9:17 - And as many as have received me, to them have I given to become the sons of God; and even so will I to as many as shall believe on my name, for behold, by me redemption cometh, and in me is the law of Moses fulfilled.

3 Nephi 15:8 - For behold, the covenant which I have made with my people is not all fulfilled; but the law which was given unto Moses hath an end in me.

You can click on the links for some cross references, but I didn't see much out of the Bible.
 
michel

michel

Administrator Emeritus
Staff member
The defender's notes (in red) might help:

5:17 Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfil.
The Lord Jesus, by His own word, did not destroy the law of God; thus it is still operable. He did, however, alone of all men, obey it perfectly. He did "fulfill" all its demands and requirements, which no other man or woman could ever do. Consequently, He alone can redeem us from "the curse of the law" (Galatians 3:13).
5:18 For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled.
The "jot" and "tittle" refer to the smallest letter and a mark which distinguished two letters in the Hebrew words of the Old Testament. Not only the words, but even the letters of scripture are divinely inspired.
5:19 Whosoever therefore shall break one of these least commandments, and shall teach men so, he shall be called the least in the kingdom of heaven: but whosoever shall do and teach them, the same shall be called great in the kingdom of heaven.
We "in the kingdom" are held accountable (especially when we teach others) for believing and obeying all God's commands. There are no insignificant or non-inspired statements in the Bible.

There is nothing much else on the interpretations of Mathew 5.17 -20 that I could find though..........
 
T

Think Bright

Member
jonny said:
I get it from the Book of Mormon. I don't think I've ever looked for a scripture in the Bible

3 Nephi 9:17 - And as many as have received me, to them have I given to become the sons of God; and even so will I to as many as shall believe on my name, for behold, by me redemption cometh, and in me is the law of Moses fulfilled.

3 Nephi 15:8 - For behold, the covenant which I have made with my people is not all fulfilled; but the law which was given unto Moses hath an end in me.

You can click on the links for some cross references, but I didn't see much out of the Bible.
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What's Mormon scripture got to do with the bible?
 
jewscout

jewscout

Religious Zionist
Pah said:
It might be that righteousness is connected to his First and Second commandments he spoke of and of the guidelines contained in the Sermon on the Mount. Following the old law and the new law might just well be neccessary.

It really makes little sense to include the Old Testament law in the Christian canons if they were not to be followed.
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:clap thank you:clap
 
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