cablescavenger
Well-Known Member
So you're saying the Josephus passage about John the Baptist is acceptable, even though it was written several generations after the fact, while the two passages about Jesus from the same work are unacceptable.
How does that work?
FB says that no one questions the existence of John the Baptist, and I said that wasn't true. And provided a link from someone stating that his existence was in question by starting his piece with
As the historical existence of John the Baptist is now also denied,
and as a first-century secular testimony to him is declared "a
shameless interpolation
I agree John the Baptist suffers the same issues as Jesus.