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What exactly does the Bible say and what doesn't it say about Homosexuality?

9Westy9

Sceptic, Libertarian, Egalitarian
Premium Member
It doesn't say that in any clear way, because it doesn't say what about it is Pagan. That there are gay Jews makes it obvious it's not Pagan, so what about it is it condemning as Pagan?

It's not clear, the chapter is about Paganism prior to that verse. It says "for this reason, god gave them over". How does that apply in any way to Jews or Christians who are gay and don't fall under the bracket of Pagan?

I think you inferred that here? Sorry if I'm mis-quoting you.
 

Many Sages One Truth

Active Member
I am saying that the authors must have been condemning some element of homosexuality as practiced among Pagans rather then condemning homosexuality in general. I don't think the authors could even have envisioned a loving homosexual couple.
 

idav

Being
Premium Member
"For this cause God gave them up to vile affections: for even their women did change the natural use into that which is against nature: And likewise also men, leaving the natural use of the woman, burned in their lust for one toward another; men with men working that which is unseemly, and receiving in themselves that recompence of their error which was meet" (Romans 1:26-27).
What I find interesting about that verse is that is says God makes someone have these sort of desires and in the context indicates that it would have been someone who rejects god even though they know he exists.
 

idav

Being
Premium Member
I am saying that the authors must have been condemning some element of homosexuality as practiced among Pagans rather then condemning homosexuality in general. I don't think the authors could even have envisioned a loving homosexual couple.
In the context of the verse in Leviticus 18 it is condemning a whole list of sexual abominations including sex with relatives, beastiality and homosexuality.
 

idav

Being
Premium Member
Additionally it is quite possible that the Romans verses are pagan related. Paul definately had strong feelings about what was going on with the Romans. What happens in Rome stays in Rome? :D
 

Duck

Well-Known Member
Doesn't Romans 1 associate homosexuality with Paganism? That leads me to wonder exactly what Paul might have been thinking of when he said those things. Was he speaking of homosexuality as we think of it, or was he thinking of some obscure sex rites?

I remember reading some articles some time ago that seemed to indicate that this was the case regarding Paul's condemnation in Romans and Corinthians. I think in the Corinthian case there was a temple to Aphrodite? near Corinth that included many activities that by prudish eyes would have been considered at best promiscuous. Some of the condemnation was also aimed I think at prostitution (particularly of boys), whether ritualized at temple, or established via human-trafficking (I think that it is in Galatians that there is some list of those not going to heaven which included something about the slave trade, but I am not completely sure).

Regardless, the Romans verse seems more to me to be the result of God, not necessarily a choice by men. Doesn't the verse say something to the effect of 'God gave them over to' those things that Paul then ******* about?
 

Me Myself

Back to my username
In the context of the verse in Leviticus 18 it is condemning a whole list of sexual abominations including sex with relatives, beastiality and homosexuality.

I find it curious that bible doesn´t condemn pedophilia anywhere...
 

9Westy9

Sceptic, Libertarian, Egalitarian
Premium Member
I am saying that the authors must have been condemning some element of homosexuality as practiced among Pagans rather then condemning homosexuality in general. I don't think the authors could even have envisioned a loving homosexual couple.

You could be right. It depends on whether you believe it to be God's word. If it's God's word it condemns ALL homosexuality until you can prove otherwise. If you don't then it's just the authors own opinion on homosexuality.
 

proffesb

Member
Leviticus contains a list of sexual acts including homosexuality that applies to men, then it prohibits men from beastiality, then it prohibits women from beastiality. Since the passage only calls out women for beastiality sound logic says that this passage doesn't prohibit lesbianism.
 

Me Myself

Back to my username
Leviticus contains a list of sexual acts including homosexuality that applies to men, then it prohibits men from beastiality, then it prohibits women from beastiality. Since the passage only calls out women for beastiality sound logic says that this passage doesn't prohibit lesbianism.

Of course it doesn´t, it is the less prohibitable of all sexual acts including heterosexuality. They are not getting pregnant and they have the least chance of venerous disease.

But most important of all, they are eye candy :D
 
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idav

Being
Premium Member
I find it curious that bible doesn´t condemn pedophilia anywhere...
That is curious.
Of course it doesn´t, it is the less prohibitable of all sexual acts including heterosexuality. They are not getting pregnant and they have the least chance of venerous disease.

But most important of all, they are eye candy :D
Of course they wouldn't want to do that with their multiple wives and all.
 

TheKnight

Guardian of Life
Leviticus contains a list of sexual acts including homosexuality that applies to men, then it prohibits men from beastiality, then it prohibits women from beastiality. Since the passage only calls out women for beastiality sound logic says that this passage doesn't prohibit lesbianism.



Even among Orthodox Jews, it is accepted that there is no outright Biblical prohibition of lesbianism. It is prohibited by Rabbinic decree.
 

Blackdog22

Well-Known Member
I am saying that the authors must have been condemning some element of homosexuality as practiced among Pagans rather then condemning homosexuality in general. I don't think the authors could even have envisioned a loving homosexual couple.

I think when it says when, a man lies with another man, it is pretty to the point.
If it was for some sort of pagan ritual then surely God could of been more accurate and said, "don't have sex with men while burning the flesh of children", or something.

Either way, this verse has been used for centuries too promote the murder of homosexuals. Surely a God could of seen the implications and altered or specified what he meant yes? If he was too lazy to do that then its just as bad as him condemning them, because that is what happened, they were condemned.
 

Many Sages One Truth

Active Member
So you don't think the Bible is somehow related to the culture it was written in? It must be the entirely literal and inerrant "word of God", even though things in it can't be relevant to now?
 
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