SOGFPP said:
Jesus himself declares that he is Yahweh ("I AM," in English translation). In John 8:58, when questioned about how he has special knowledge of Abraham, Jesus replies, "Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I AM."
how thoroughly was i through this?you keep pretending that it is true.i think you're not paying attention, and who can blame you.the truth can.
esv-Heb2:17
Therefore he had to be made like his brothers in every respect, so that he might become a merciful and faithful high priest in the service of God, to make propitiation for the sins of the people.
like brothers in everyway...were they also fully man/"almighty" as you(not the scriptures) say?do you know of any scripture that would let us believe that the almighty could be in service of another 'god'? are we ever called the almighty's brothers in scripture?did he ever say he would become our brother?a son of man?
rev3:12
He that overcometh, I will make him a pillar in the temple of my God, and he shall go out thence no more: and I will write upon him the name of my God, and the name of the city of my God, the new Jerusalem, which cometh down out of heaven from my God, and mine own new name.
Yeshua said "My 'GOD'" 4x in one verse?after his death?after he was in heaven and in the same position he's in now, there seems scripturally to be one above him still and forever, never his equal, never...
Acts 5:31
Him did God exalt with his right hand [to be] a Prince and a Saviour, to give repentance to Israel, and remission of sins.
..."exalted"(i.e.;raised,promoted) to be a prince and saviour, rather interesting, rather.
Joh 5:22
For neither doth the Father judge any man, but he hath given all judgment unto the Son;
if they were equal, obviously judgement would not be given to the son, for it would already be his.
Ac 7:30,Ac 7:35
This Moses whom they refused, saying, Who made thee a ruler and a judge? him hath God sent [to be] both a ruler and a deliverer with the hand of the angel that appeared to him in the bush.
here, we are told an 'angel' uttered those words that were of [yhwh].which btw are more accurately translated as 'i will be'.are you calling the 'angel' identified in acts 7 as almighty?
Here is the weblink for a website that discusses the phrase "ehyeh asher ehyeh."
http://www.bluethread.com/ehyeh.htm
As you will see from the website, Rashi supports the rendering as "I will be what I will be."
The phrase is not as one dimensional as you may have been taught or as the translations you have referenced may lead you to believe.
http://www.studylight.org/com/acc/view.cgi?book=ex&chapter=3&verse=14#Ex3_14
And God said unto Moses, I AM THAT I AM: and he said, Thus shalt thou say ... I AM hath sent me unto you. (ASV)
"I WILL BE WHO (OR WHAT) I WILL BE." (Fields)
"I WILL BE WHAT I WILL BE." (Tyndale Bible)
"I AM WHO AM." (the Douay Version)
"I AM THE BEING." (the Septuagint (LXX))
"I AM BECAUSE I AM." (ASV's margin)
"I WILL BE WHAT I WILL BE." (Moffatt)
"I AM WHO I AM." (RSV)
.........................
Furthermore, if we look at a Bible Hebrew Dictionary , we can look up the Phrase "I AM" hayah {haw-yaw} in Hebrew and see that it Means;
"was, come to pass, came, has been, were happened, become, pertained, better for thee
1) to be, become, come to pass, exist, happen, fall out
1a) to happen, fall out, occur, take place, come about, come to pass
1b) to come about, come to pass
2) to come into being, become
2a) to arise, appear, come
2b) to become
2b1) to become
2b3) to be instituted, be established
3) to be
3a) to exist, be in existence
3b) to abide, remain, continue (with word of place or time)
3c) to stand, lie, be in, be at, be situated (with word of locality)
3d) to accompany, be with "
The Phrase "I AM" hayah {haw-yaw} is Used 72 times in the Hebrew Bible by a
number of Prophets including (David, Moses, etc...)
The Phrase " I-AM-GOD "'Elohiym {el-o-heem'} is Used 200 times in the Bible , Never by Any Prophets .
Furthermore , in the Gospel of John , Jesus is recorded to have said "ego eimi" _Not_ "Hayah" Two completely different words in completely different languages , but both translated in to English as "I_am"
Why then did't Jesus also say "Hayah" (I_am) the same way God said "Hayah" ??Remember acts26:14, the messiah did speak hebrew as well.
Therefore with a *Statement* as grand as "I_am" , Jesus (if he said it) would have said "Hayah" like God said "Hayah"
Instead , Jesus says "ego eimi" which is not what God said .
This proves that Jesus did Not say "I_am" like God said "I AM"
Also , this phrase appears in Jhn, but Not in Luke , Mark , or Matthew.Why only john?if it is as monumental as you believe?why wouldn't the others record it as well?
1The man born blind that Jesus healed was not claiming to be God, and he said I am the man, and the Greek reads exactly like Jesus statement, i.e., I am. The fact that the exact same phrase is translated two different ways, one as I am and the other as I am the man, is one reason it is so hard for the average Christian to get the truth from just reading the Bible as it has been translated into English. Most Bible translators are Trinitarian, and their bias appears in various places in their translation, this being a common one. Paul also used the same phrase of himself when he said that he wished all men were as I am (Acts 26:29). Thus, we conclude that saying I am did not make Paul, the man born blind or Christ into God.The phrase I am occurs many other times in the New Testament, and is often translated as I am he or some equivalent (I am heMark 13:6; Luke 21:8; John 13:19; 18:5, 6 and 8. It is IMatt. 14:27; Mark 6:50; John 6:20. I am the one I claim to beJohn 8:24 and 28.). It is obvious that these translations are quite correct, and it is interesting that the phrase is translated as I am only in John 8:58. If the phrase in John 8:58 were translated I am he or I am the one, like all the others, it would be easier to see that Christ was speaking of himself as the Messiah of God (as indeed he was), spoken of throughout the Old Testament.
While the Greek phrase in John does mean I am, the Hebrew phrase in Exodus actually means to be or to become. In other words God is saying, I will be what I will be.*see as many translations as you can find, many will not read in ex3:14 "..i am..".also, keep in mind that ex3:14 was an 'angel' speaking on behalf of [yhwh] and not himself.
It is believed that John.8:59 further supports the position that YAHushua is the "I AM." Why else would the Jews try to stone him? He obviously blasphemed in the eyes of the Jews, a stoneable offense. Or did he? Is the mere utterance of "ego eimi" a blasphemy? Does the use of "ego eimi" automatically identify the speaker as YAHWEH, the I AM?
Several individuals aside from YAHushua used "ego eimi" as well. In Lu.1:19, the angel Gabriel said, "Ego eimi Gabriel." In John.9:9, the blind man whose sight was restored by YAHushua said, "Ego eimi." In Acts 10:21, Peter said, "Behold, ego eimi (I am) he whom ye seek." Obviously, the mere use of "ego eimi" does not equate one to the "I Am" of Ex.3:14. But perhaps the Saviors use of it was somehow different. After all, he came down from heaven.
If, in fact, YAHushua spoke Greek to the Jews (which I doubt), he used the phrase "ego eimi" at least twenty times and yet, in only one instance did the Jews seek to stone him (John.8:58). YAHushua said, "I am the bread of life" to a large crowd, in John.6:35 & 48, yet no one opposed him. In verse 41, the Jews murmured because he said, "I am (ego eimi) the bread which came down from heaven." But in verse 42, the Jews questioned only the phrase, "I came down from heaven" and ignored "ego eimi." The same is true of verses 51 & 52.
In John.8:12, 18, 24, & 28, YAHushua used "ego eimi" with Pharisees present (vs.13) and yet, no stoning. He, again, used it four times in John.10:7, 9, 11, & 14 with no stoning.
TBC