sojourner
Annoyingly Progressive Since 2006
Absolutely.So, scripturally speaking, if something is not specifically prohibited, then we have full authority to do it?
Laws are in place, primarily, to provide boundaries for behavior. Some provide direction, but most provide barriers.How does make sense?
Sure we can! We have the Holy Spirit, don't we? God is pleased with us if we live our lives being honest with ourselves and true to who we are. We do know those things.We can’t know what pleases God unless He tells us (which he has done through his word)!
Of course we do! We know God's mind through the Tradition of the Church. We know God's mind if we pay attention to the universe. We know God's mind if we listen to our inner self.We don’t know Gods mind outside of what he has revealed in the NT.
If the government doesn't specifically prohibit an act, we have to assume that the act is legal. I suspect the same is true for God, especially since God isn't nearly the control freak that the government is. God gives us the freedom to be, to explore, to expand, to experience. If a large dimension of, arguably, one of the most influential arts, is instrumental, and if that art is used to deepen our experience of God in worship, why wouldn't it please God for us to utilize that dimension?How does God’s silence on a subject give us any authority to act at all?
so... you're discounting the Tradition (of which the Bible is part)?Again you’re talking about expediencies here. The command is “to worship,” not “to worship while standing.” The same goes for prayer, song, communion, scripture reading, etc. As long as I am worshipping in spirit and in truth, my posture becomes an expediency – a way to carry out a specific command. It has no bearing on the matter. Musical instruments are wholly different.
How do you reckon musical instruments are "wholly different?" In what way? How, specifically, will our worship be diminished by their inclusion?
It can't, actually, since Christians were engaging in worship long before the NT was produced. It was, in fact, the Tradition that produced the texts, themselves.It can also be argued that the opposite is true – that tradition actually was derived from scripture.
Of course, you realize that those letters weren't part of scripture when they were written? And it was the Tradition -- not the Bible -- that declared some of those letters to be scriptural.2 Thes 2:15 - So then, brethren, stand firm and hold to the traditions which you were taught, whether by word of mouth or by letter from us.
The letters of Paul, and others apparently, dictated, at least in part, what the tradition was, not the other way around.
It indicates no such thing. When Luke wrote, he was compiling oral tradition from several sources into written form, so that it would be concise. Luke, in fact, bore witness to the Tradition of the apostles.In fact, Luke even states that he wrote down his Gospel so that Theophilus would know the exact truth, indicating that the tradition handed down by even the Apostles themselves was not adequate (Luke 1:1-4)! So apparently scripture even negates tradition to some degree.
What did Xians who lived 250 years after the fact have?We have the Bible today, thus I see no need for tradition.
So you think we should just be stopped in time -- not move forward in our faith? Our faith should be preserved behind glass and not be a living faith? Do you really think that the Bible tells the entire story?
If you remember, the apostles did worship on the Sabbath, with all the other Jews. It wasn't until they were cordially invited not to come back that they stopped the practice. Additionally, as Jewish Xy died out, and Xy became a Gentile religion, the Gentiles saw no need to go to Synagogue.Why should it effect the day on which we assemble either? The Old Law required assembly on the Sabbath. Why, then, did the apostles decide to assemble on the first day of the week (Acts 20:7, 1 Cor. 16:1-2)? The OT would have dictated that they still keep the Sabbath.
(BTW, you do know that, during the times the Church had injunctions against instruments, it wasn't just instruments? It included all music?) Your argument just doesn't make any sense to me.
You're only telling half the story. Jesus also said, "It is written...but I tell you..."Even so, the emphasis within scripture is that scripture itself (OT or NT) holds more weight than tradition. Jesus even warned the Pharisees of the dangers of relying on tradition in Matt. 15:6 and Mark 7:13.
Certainly those letters weren't universally distributed, and certainly the Church had no conception of them being scripture, or even proto-scripture when they read them. What those letters represented to the intended audiences was Tradition. By the grace of hindsight, we perceive those letters differently today, but originally, they would have been no different than a Papal bull today.Less than 100 years after Jesus’ death, the various writings that would eventually be compiled into the NT were completed and being shared among the early Christians. So, as you say, “The Bible” as we have it didn’t exist, but the writings from which it was compiled certainly did. We have the Bible today, thus we have no more need for tradition. It was a stepping stone that bridged the gap between the establishment of the Church and the complete, written teachings.
You're right. You're assuming that the silence with regard to the use of instruments means that they may not be used. There is no injunction banning the use of them.Assuming gets us nowhere. Just because aspects of Ancient Greek culture were acceptable culturally, doesn’t mean it was accepted within the church. Also, just because they may or may not have used instruments, doesn’t necessarily mean that they did so justifiably.
By your logic, then, if we can eschew circumcision, animal sacrifice, keeping the Sabbath, etc., then we are free to praise God with instruments. Because you have made it clear that keeping the "old Law" doesn't matter. If the old Law was written and understood and we can disregard it, why should we doggedly adhere to something that is not even mentioned in the texts, when the use of them is suggested (not mandated) in the Tradition?It becomes clear then that the Jews, and even Jesus himself considered the psalms law. Therefore, any claim that we can use them as a guide in NT worship, inherently suggests that we can follow all other parts of the Old Law. By your own logic, then, if we can praise God with instruments mentioned in the Psalms, then we must require circumcision, animal sacrifice, keeping the Sabbath etc. which is obviously not true.
It seems to me that the prohibition of instruments is based in Tradition (seeing that there is no specific written injunction against them), and since you say "we have no further need of tradition," that must mean that we have no further need to prohibit instruments from being used.