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Laws regarding sacrifices

Finnyhaha

Member
Jeremiah 7:22 "I gave your ancestors no commands regarding burnt offerings or any other kind of sacrifices when I brought them out of Egypt."

I hope that everyone will recognize the problem I have with this verse. Much of the Torah is made up of very, very specific laws concerning sacrifices, yet in Jeremiah, supposedly written after the Torah, Jeremiah claims that God said to him that there had been no commands regarding offerings. What's the deal?

I have a couple ideas:
a) God did not give the laws for the sacrfices until a while AFTER he had brought them out of Egypt.

b) Jeremiah meant this figuratively, and meant to say that God no longer desired the offerings to be made.

c) The Torah was actually written much later than claimed by Jews and Christians.

Anyone have a preference of one of these explanations? Any other possibilties? Let me know because this has been bothering me for a while.
 

Valjean

Veteran Member
Premium Member
Poor proofreading during the editing and compilation of the Torah/Bible.

The bible's full of curious things like that.
 

Finnyhaha

Member
So the people putting together the Bible didn't realize what Jeremiah had said?
Or they didn't realize that there were, in fact, laws regarding sacrifices that had been given?
I find the first one much more likely. But still.. the whole Biblical compilation/authorship thing just confuses me.

:confused:
 

Valjean

Veteran Member
Premium Member
I'm guessing multiple authors, much editing and embellishment and many gospels to sift through before a handful were finally compiled into a book may have left a few discrepencies undiscovered.
 
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