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Did Jesus free us from the Law?

blueman

God's Warrior
john313 said:
The only flaws i have seen are in the teachings of Paul. If Paul's teaching was the same as Jesus, then why was he called "The Liar"? Of course the church will just reject documents referring to Paul as a Liar as this will be great for all the sheeple, but nevertheless, they do exist and they are carbon dated to the time of James and Paul. This would of course explain why Paul was so adamant about saying he does not lie.
"The God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, which is blessed for evermore, know that I do not lie." 2 Corinthians 11:31

"I say the truth in Christ, I lie not, my conscience also bearing me witness in the Holy Ghost." Romans 9:1

"Whereunto I am ordained a preacher, and an apostle, (I speak the truth in Christ, and lie not;) a teacher of the Gentiles in faith and verity." 1 Timothy 2:7

"Now the things which I write unto you, behold, before God, I lie not." Galatians 1:20
You had false teachers at that time claiming Paul's message was false and Paul reinforcing to the church body that he wasn't. So what? You pointing to biblical scripture pointing this out proves what? That Paul was defending himself against the attacks of other so called teachers of that time? :)
 

john313

warrior-poet
blueman said:
You had false teachers at that time claiming Paul's message was false and Paul reinforcing to the church body that he wasn't. So what? You pointing to biblical scripture pointing this out proves what? That Paul was defending himself against the attacks of other so called teachers of that time? :)
Funny that these same texts call James the Righteous teacher. How could that be if their message was the same, the same as the message of Jesus? Paul was defending himself against the attacks of the Jerusalem church, headed by James, the "Righteous Teacher."
 

Mister Emu

Emu Extraordinaire
Staff member
Premium Member
NetDoc,

I don't speak KJV
That quote is not the KJV.

KJV says "But be it so, I did not burden you: nevertheless, being crafty, I caught you with guile."
I think there is a big difference between that and saying "I took you in by deceit."

Edit: Also John, I would like you to cite evidence that the Church of Jerusalem led by James, was attacking Paul. I did not see any such in previous posts.
 

James the Persian

Dreptcredincios Crestin
john313 said:
( In 1870, an Aramaic manuscript entitled "The Gospel of the Nazirenes" was discovered, translated and published. This ancient scripture, hidden away for centuries in a Tibetan monastery, seems in virtually every respect identical to the work by the same title, that was known and widely quoted from in the first century by the church. Many of the most revered early church fathers, as well as a surprising number of scholars today, have boldly declared that the legendary Gospel of the Nazirenes, later to be known as "The Gospel of the Holy Twelve," is nothing less than the long-lost original Gospel which, legend holds, was collectively written by the actual 12 apostles in the period immediately following Christ's death, and upon which all of the Biblical synoptic Gospels are based.)
Now to deal with this nonsense. The following quote is from www.earlychristianwritings.com on the Gospel of the Nazoreans:

The Gospel of the Nazoreans is an expansion of the Gospel of Matthew, translated from Greek into Aramaic or Syriac.

In The Other Gospels, Cameron notes the sources that are available: "The first reference to the Gospel of the Nazoreans was made ca. 180 C.E. by Hegesippus (a church writer whose five-volume 'Memoirs' are now lost, preserved only in a few quotations in the writings of Eusebius). Fragments are preserved in the works of Origen (early in the third century) and Eusebius (early in the fourth century); Epiphanius (late in the fourth century) attests to the existence of this gospel, but does not quote from it. Most of the fragments that are to be assigned to the Gospel of the Nazoreans come from the writings of Jerome (ca. 400 C.E.), who incorrectly identifies this gospel with the Gospel of the Hebrews, but who, his testimony notwithstanding, certainly had firsthand knowledge only of the Gospel of the Nazoreans." Cameron also makes these observations on provenance and dating: "The Gospel of the Nazoreans was composed sometime after the Gospel of Matthew and before the first attestation of the text by Hegesippus. Its provenance is most likely western Syria, where Matthew was probably composed and the Nazoreans were still at home in the fourth century. The theology reflected in the extant fragments is not at all 'heretical,' but is closely aligned with and dependent upon the developing theology of the emerging 'catholic' church. The variant readings witness to the instability of gospel texts and gospel manuscripts in the first few centuries C.E. Most of all, the Gospel of the Nazoreans demonstrates the continuing use and expansion of gospel traditions within a group of Jewish Christians."
It is neither the original Gospel, nor was it originally written in Aramaic, it wasn't even a wholly original text, being based on Matthew, and nor did a single Church Father claim that it was the original Gospel. In fact the issue of which Gospels would be considered canonical was pretty much settled before this work was first mentioned. In addition, considering the very few fragments of the Gospel of the Nazoreans that are to be found in early Church documents of any sort, I find the claim "This ancient scripture, hidden away for centuries in a Tibetan monastery, seems in virtually every respect identical to the work by the same title, that was known and widely quoted from in the first century by the church" to be problematic to say the least, and that's without mentioning the fact that it wasn't even referred to by anyone until the late 2nd century.

Nothing I can find on 'The Gospel of the Holy Twelve' suggests that it is either this Gospel or genuine. The story that it was found in a Tibetan Buddhist monastery where it had been preserved by the Nazirenes is also highly suspicious, given Tibet's popularity in the 19th century imagination as an ancient source for all things ancient and religious. The biggest problem with the story, though, is the inconvenient fact that Buddhism didn't even begin to penetrate Tibet until 10th century AD. Prior to that the religion had been a pagan one called Bon (and as an ex-Karma Kagyu Buddhist, I know what I'm talking about here). How then did the Nazirenes, who disappear from history hundreds of years earlier manage this feat? Time travel?

James
 

blueman

God's Warrior
john313 said:
Funny that these same texts call James the Righteous teacher. How could that be if their message was the same, the same as the message of Jesus? Paul was defending himself against the attacks of the Jerusalem church, headed by James, the "Righteous Teacher."
It is not same message of Jesus. It is in contrast to not only the Gospel of Christ that Paul preached, but also Matthew Mark, John, Peter and in the book of James, who many attribute these teachings to Jesus's brother. Your doctrine is flawed and full of holes. It cannot stand on it's own when compared to the Holy Bible. :)
 

john313

warrior-poet
NetDoc said:
Sorry...

He never said that. You are twisting words yet once more.
if you are referring to my signature, there is hadith stating he did say that, it is not from the bible. That is the only quote i see.
 

john313

warrior-poet
Mister Emu said:
NetDoc,

That quote is not the KJV.

KJV says "But be it so, I did not burden you: nevertheless, being crafty, I caught you with guile."
I think there is a big difference between that and saying "I took you in by deceit."

Edit: Also John, I would like you to cite evidence that the Church of Jerusalem led by James, was attacking Paul. I did not see any such in previous posts.
Peace,
Sorry, but guile is : deceitful, cunning according to merriam webster. If you need a dictionary you should be able to find one online. They mean exactly the same thing. I would recommend the books The Dead Sea Scrolls and the First Christians and James the Brother of Jesus Both great books by Robert EisenmanProfessor of Middle East Religions and Archeology and Director of the Institute for Judeo-Christian Origins at California State University and visiting Senior member of Linacre College, Oxford University. He discusses in depth the texts and the "Liar" and "Righteous Teacher".
 

john313

warrior-poet
NetDoc said:
He does love to twist the Scriptures. Thanks for pointing that out.
please see my last post. There are many dictionaries online if you need to look up words like guile, deceit. Thanks for the lie about me as well. But i guess there is no sin on you since you believe in human sacrifice.
 

john313

warrior-poet
IacobPersul said:
Now to deal with this nonsense. The following quote is from www.earlychristianwritings.com on the Gospel of the Nazoreans:

It is neither the original Gospel, nor was it originally written in Aramaic, it wasn't even a wholly original text, being based on Matthew, and nor did a single Church Father claim that it was the original Gospel. In fact the issue of which Gospels would be considered canonical was pretty much settled before this work was first mentioned. In addition, considering the very few fragments of the Gospel of the Nazoreans that are to be found in early Church documents of any sort, I find the claim "This ancient scripture, hidden away for centuries in a Tibetan monastery, seems in virtually every respect identical to the work by the same title, that was known and widely quoted from in the first century by the church" to be problematic to say the least, and that's without mentioning the fact that it wasn't even referred to by anyone until the late 2nd century.

Nothing I can find on 'The Gospel of the Holy Twelve' suggests that it is either this Gospel or genuine. The story that it was found in a Tibetan Buddhist monastery where it had been preserved by the Nazirenes is also highly suspicious, given Tibet's popularity in the 19th century imagination as an ancient source for all things ancient and religious. The biggest problem with the story, though, is the inconvenient fact that Buddhism didn't even begin to penetrate Tibet until 10th century AD. Prior to that the religion had been a pagan one called Bon (and as an ex-Karma Kagyu Buddhist, I know what I'm talking about here). How then did the Nazirenes, who disappear from history hundreds of years earlier manage this feat? Time travel?

James
http://www.karenlyster.com/arch.html
Prior to 325 AD, however, many of the early Church fathers had included in their writings mention of an earlier Gospel, upon which, they claimed in near-perfect unison, the synoptic Gospels of Matthew, Mark, and Luke had ALL been based. Mentioned or quoted from by such well-known church fathers as Papias, Hegesippus, Iranaeas, Clement, Origen, Basil, Epiphanius, Eusebius, and St. Jerome, this document had gone variously by the title "Gospel of the Nazirenes" (The word "Nazirene" comes from a "Nazirite-Essene" sect, or a Nazirite sect of the Essene branch of Judaism), "Gospel of the Hebrews", "Gospel of the Ebionites", and "The Aramaic Gospel of Matthew".
Tibet may have been mainly pagan, i do not know enough about it to debate, but that does not mean they did not have the gospel in their possession. Having it does not mean they followed it.
 

john313

warrior-poet
blueman said:
It is not same message of Jesus. It is in contrast to not only the Gospel of Christ that Paul preached, but also Matthew Mark, John, Peter and in the book of James, who many attribute these teachings to Jesus's brother. Your doctrine is flawed and full of holes. It cannot stand on it's own when compared to the Holy Bible. :)
What i was saying in my post was that if the messages of James, Jesus, and Paul were all the same, then why did texts call Paul "the Liar" and call James "the Righteous Teacher" at the same time? Were the writers insane?
My apologies if i was unclear in my post.
I will say "my" doctrine is not full of holes until someone has some sort of proof otherwise, i have not yet seen it.
 

Mister Emu

Emu Extraordinaire
Staff member
Premium Member
I wasn't talking about guile, I was talking about a difference between caught, and took you in, it completley changes the verse.
 

john313

warrior-poet
Mister Emu said:
I wasn't talking about guile, I was talking about a difference between caught, and took you in, it completley changes the verse.
Sorry, i misunderstood. When we look at the original text language we find that:
lambano {lam-ban'-o} is our word in question. There are a few differrent possibilities for translation into English:
http://www.blueletterbible.org/tmp_dir/words/2/1119156843-4527.html


1) to take

a) to take with the hand, lay hold of, any person or thing in order to use it

1) to take up a thing to be carried

2) to take upon one's self

b) to take in order to carry away

1) without the notion of violence, i,e to remove, take away

c) to take what is one's own, to take to one's self, to make one's own

1) to claim, procure, for one's self

a) to associate with one's self as companion, attendant

2) of that which when taken is not let go, to seize, to lay hold of, apprehend

3) to take by craft (our catch, used of hunters, fisherman, etc.), to circumvent one by fraud

4) to take to one's self, lay hold upon, take possession of, i.e. to appropriate to one's self

5) catch at, reach after, strive to obtain

6) to take a thing due, to collect, gather (tribute)

d) to take

1) to admit, receive

2) to receive what is offered

3) not to refuse or reject

4) to receive a person, give him access to one's self,

a) to regard any one's power, rank, external circumstances, and on that account to do some injustice or neglect something

e) to take, to choose, select

f) to take beginning, to prove anything, to make a trial of, to experience 2) to receive (what is given), to gain, get, obtain, to get back
For Synonyms see entry 5877

-You can decide for yourself. I do not agree with caught. The original translation i posted is just as valid as the KJV when we look at the original language. I think "caught you with guile" and "took you in by deceit" mean the same thing. Maybe we should start a poll to see what others think. Let the masses decide :)
 

James the Persian

Dreptcredincios Crestin
john313 said:
Prior to 325 AD, however, many of the early Church fathers had included in their writings mention of an earlier Gospel, upon which, they claimed in near-perfect unison, the synoptic Gospels of Matthew, Mark, and Luke had ALL been based. Mentioned or quoted from by such well-known church fathers as Papias, Hegesippus, Iranaeas, Clement, Origen, Basil, Epiphanius, Eusebius, and St. Jerome, this document had gone variously by the title "Gospel of the Nazirenes" (The word "Nazirene" comes from a "Nazirite-Essene" sect, or a Nazirite sect of the Essene branch of Judaism), "Gospel of the Hebrews", "Gospel of the Ebionites", and "The Aramaic Gospel of Matthew".
Tibet may have been mainly pagan, i do not know enough about it to debate, but that does not mean they did not have the gospel in their possession. Having it does not mean they followed it.
Right, firstly I'll deal with your quote. Just because someone claims something on the internet does not make it fact (at least this quote has a more realistic date though). Firstly I'd like to point out that neither Origen nor Eusebius are Church Fathers, though they are useful sources. Couple that fact with the use of St. as a title only for Jerome when there are at least 4 more saints in the list, and I'm a little dubious as to precisely how educated on the subject the writer is. As to those mentioned, I am pretty familiar with St. Basil the Great and St. Irenaeus of Lyons. To my knowledge neither of them ever claimed the Gospel of the Nazoreans/Nazirenes was the original Gospel (as far as I can ascertain neither of them mentioned it at all and certainly never quoted it) and in fact Jerome mentions it as being used by the Ebionites, who were a condemned Judaising sect and so those Fathers who do mention the text are far from positive towards it. Continuing down your list, I have read all the extant works of Eusebius and he definitely doesn't claim this Gospel as the original and I'm quite familiar with the one mention of the text by Hegesippus, which is completely neutral towards it. It seems to me as though the list of 'fathers' was made up by searching their works for the words 'gospel' and 'nazirene' and then accepting the names returned uncritically. Find me one Father (so not heretics like Origen) who referred to this text as the original Gospel (or even referred to an original Gospel at all) and your argument would hold more weight. If your sources are reputable (which they don't appear to be) then this should be easy for you to find - supporting Patristic quotations must be mentioned on their websites. Surely?

As for the belief that pagans could have looked after a copy of a Gospel they presumably considered as worthless (they clearly didn't follow any Christian teachings). I'd say it was pretty flipping far fetched. For a start, the Tibetans wouldn't have been able to read it, so they wouldn't have been able to make any copies in case something happened to the original. The Tibetans were even illiterate in their own language until their script was invented in the Buddhist era, so why on earth word they have striven to protect a largely worthless set of scratchings on parchment for several centuries prior to the Buddhists arriving and, presumably miraculously, seeing their worth? Why would the Buddhists have seen any worth in them at all and how could they, given that north Indians don't tend to be fluent in written Aramaic? And, finally, who on earth could possibly believe that a bunch of Nazirenes travelling west to escape persecution would stop in a valley way up in the Himalayas, look around them at the primitive, illiterate, animist Bon natives and go, 'Ahah! The perfect place to preserve our texts!'. No, the story only makes sense, and not much even then, if the Buddhist monastery in question existed when the text arrived. This whole story is, to me, a prime example of 19th century fascination with Tibet coupled with a not uncommon tendency in the same period's Protestant churches to turn out new prophets with new (but in various different ways legitimised) Christian texts.

If you ever do bother to read the extant fragments of the Gospel of the Nazoreans (which, incidentally is believed to have been written between 100-160 AD and certainly is later than Matthew, a point you failed to address after my last post) then I'm sure you'll be struck dumb by the sheer banality of the differences between it and Matthew, things like whether the bread in the Lord's prayer should be daily or tomorrow's, or whether Jerusalem should actually be rendered as the Holy City. There's not enough difference there for a theologoumenon, let alone a different religion.

James
 
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