Lostinthisworld
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Why don't you ask GOD ?
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Here here from Dr. Khankeevelish said:I read the King James version because it was developed from manuscripts that were poured over for historical and doctrinal accuracies. The scholars gathered manuscripts and compared them one to another and to the old testament. Any scriptures that contained errors were dismissed. The King James version was formulated from the Textus receptus which is the underlying Greek text. The manuscripts that comprise the Textus Receptus agree with all known scripture 95 percent and number over 5000. All recent versions have been formulated from older manuscripts that were found that contain errors both in doctrine and historical accuracy. Westcott and Hort formulated the English Revised Edition from manuscripts found in the Vatican and the Sinaiticus (CodexAleph) which was found in a monastary wastebasket. This manuscript had over 12,000 changes to it. THe New American Standard Version uses the 23rd edition of the Nestle Greek New testament, which is patterned after the corrupt Westcott-Hort edition. The new versions leave out sections of scripture- some are Acts 8:37, Mark 7-9, and they change portions in many different instances. When the King James Version was directly translated from the Septuagint and the greek new testament, the scholars had to add in certain words in order for the text to flow in a logical manner. THey put these words in italics so that the reader would know for sure that these were the words of the scholars and NOT the word of God. The new versions of the Bible do NOT put words in italic, but completely change the sentence structure- the reader cannot know which is the word of God and which is not. Revelation 22:19 testifies that judgement will be upon any who change the Words that God has written.
*Paul* said:it just bugs me when people put down the awesome A.V.
getting back to the original meanings is what a good translation is all about.writer said:i think i'd have to call it rather a distortion, not "translation," in salient respects.
Such as John 1:1 pertaining to God
may said:(John 1:18) No man has seen God at any time; the only-begotten god who is in the bosom [position] with the Father is the one that has explained him.
comprehend said:How do you harmonize the scripture above with these:
Gen. 32:30
30 And Jacob called the name of the place Peniel: for I have seen God face to face, and my life is preserved.
Ex 33:11
11 And the LORD spake unto Moses face to face, as a man speaketh unto his friend. And he turned again into the camp: but his servant Joshua, the son of Nun, a young man, departed not out of the tabernacle.
Deut 34:10
10 And there arose not a prophet since in Israel like unto Moses, whom the LORD knew face to face,
Num. 12:8
8 With him will I speak mouth to mouth, even apparently, and not in dark speeches; and the similitude of the LORD shall he behold: wherefore then were ye not afraid to speak against my servant Moses?
John 14:9
9 Jesus saith unto him, Have I been so long time with you, and yet hast thou not known me, Philip? he that hath seen me hath seen the Father; and how sayest thou [then], Shew us the Father?
Acts 7:56
56 And said, Behold, I see the heavens opened, and the Son of man standing on the right hand of God.
comprehend said:you didn't answer my question. What do you think the scriptures I gave you are saying?
P.S. Jehovah is Jesus Chirst, Elohim is God the Father but I guess that is a different thread.
comprehend said:you didn't answer my question. What do you think the scriptures I gave you are saying?
P.S. Jehovah is Jesus Chirst, Elohim is God the Father but I guess that is a different thread.
comprehend said:you didn't answer my question. What do you think the scriptures I gave you are saying?
P.S. Jehovah is Jesus Chirst, Elohim is God the Father but I guess that is a different thread.
may said:
Do not forget that Jehovah had told Moses: "No man may see me and yet live." (Ex. 33:20) And later the apostle John reported as fact: "No man has seen God at any time." (John 1:18) Interestingly, however, concerning the time when angelic announcement was made to God-fearing shepherds about the birth of Jesus, Luke 2:9 reports: "Suddenly Jehovahs angel stood by them, and Jehovahs glory gleamed around them." Thus it is shown that manifestations of Jehovahs glory could be made in connection with the angels. This evidently is what took place when Jehovah caused his glory to appear to Moses. However, it was not the full force of Jehovahs glory, thus resulting in Moses death, but was only the afterglow, Gods "back," as it were. This is consistent with Stephens explanation that Moses was "with the angel that spoke to him on Mount Sinai." After this the divine power wrote the Ten Commandments on the new set of tablets that Moses had brought up.Ex. 34:28.
may said:
Jehovah communicated with Moses on more than one occasion. When Moses was shepherding the flock of his father-in-law alongside Mount Horeb, he saw a burning thornbush that was not consumed. As reported at Exodus 3:4-6, "when Jehovah saw that he turned aside to inspect, God at once called to him out of the midst of the thornbush and said: Moses! Moses! . . . And he went on to say: I am the God of your father, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac and the God of Jacob. Then Moses concealed his face, because he was afraid to look at the true God." Who was it that was actually speaking to Moses on that occasion? Verse 2 says: "Jehovahs angel appeared to him in a flame of fire in the midst of a thornbush." So, it was not Jehovah himself who there appeared to Moses and spoke to him, but it was Jehovahs angel who, as the representative of God, spoke in His name.
may said:
"Face to face" intimacy existed between Jehovah and his servant Moses, even though Moses could not literally see God. (Deuteronomy 34:10; Exodus 33:20)
The Hebrew name for the God of the Bible is יהוה, commonly translated "Jehovah." but as you say that is for another thread.
comprehend said:That makes zero sense. the only reason to use the phrase "face to face" is to show that they DID literally see each other. It says, "as one man speaketh to another" what men do you know that are invisible?
comprehend said:That makes zero sense. the only reason to use the phrase "face to face" is to show that they DID literally see each other. It says, "as one man speaketh to another" what men do you know that are invisible?