uss_bigd
Well-Known Member
Which verse in the NT are you refering to? could you reconcile that with matthew 19:5 ( two become one flesh)
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contradictions in the bible???
- Thread starter uss_bigd
- Start date
Which verse in the NT are you refering to? could you reconcile that with matthew 19:5 ( two become one flesh)
Autodidact
Intentionally Blank
The verse that isn't there because it doesn't exist. That is, any verse that prohibits polygamy.
Matthew 19:5 just tells how any husband and wife should live in relation to one another, not anything about number.
Look, uss, it's simple. God knows how to prohibit things: "Thou shalt not..." He does that a lot. He doesn't do it about polygamy. Therefore polygamy is not prohibited.
uss_bigd
Well-Known Member
In the ot yes. the NT has a whole new approach.
Mat 19;5 said you are no longer two but one. it states a general rule, those will marry will constitute two peole not 3 or 4 but two.
Circumstancial evidence attorney. the circumstances potrayed in the verse does not provide for the acceptance of polygamy.
Katzpur
Not your average Mormon
Right. It states a general rule. It does not state that God never can or will allow any exceptions to this rule.
uss_bigd
Well-Known Member
Are you sure your starting this Katspur?
you got your exception from Joseph Smith not Jesus Christ.
The bible states My God did not allow exceptions becasue he said, the apostles were the last to be sent, and keep to that which is writtten in the gospels of the apostles of Christ.
I can agree your god made exceptions for you from what ever extra biblical reference you have.
But if you continue bringing the bible in your church's acceptance to polygamy in the past, no one can make me shut up.
MaddLlama
Obstructor of justice
no one can make me shut up.
Is that a threat? If it is, it's an incredibly frightening one, since I can't think of anything else that would make most people here happier.
:shout Please let it be a lie!
The cake is a lie too.
uss_bigd
Well-Known Member
As soon as i have it ready i will send you via private message. so that you will have a personal copy.
I will post it here as soon as it is ready.
by the way, I have not forgotten that " Joseph smith did not write doctrine of polygamy from he NT. He got it from christ him self. "
Which means your acceptance of polygamy isn't biblical, but was an instruction diretly from "your" Christ.
I am glad to say, your christ is different from my Christ. my Christ come from an incomplete, erroneous and contradicting source called the " the bible ". after making your blasphemous assertions stop masquerading as a biblical christian. the hypocrisy makes me want to throw up.
we can now agree that your doctrine is not biblical. i can accept that.
Autodidact
Intentionally Blank
You think God forgot how to issue prohibitions? And no, Matthew 19 does not prohibit polygamy, it merely tells how husbands and wives should relate to each other. I think if God had wanted to outlaw something He had formerly permitted, He knew how to say so. In fact Christians continued to practice polygamy for 3 centuries afterward, until Christianity became Romanized, at which point they accepted the Roman model of marriage, which was monogamous. That's why it's not prohibited in the Bible; it was the custom in the Near East at that time.
Autodidact
Intentionally Blank
Have patience, Sola, uss has to accomplish the impossible: reconciling two contradictory verses. He's working on it.
uss_bigd
Well-Known Member
you are stating your opinion!
If the bible states "two becomes one flesh" and not three or four it states the rule there TEO BECOME ONE. why must we e stubborn and seem greedy with flesh?
uss_bigd
Well-Known Member
McBell
Resident Sourpuss
even if he support his opinion with scripture, it is still his opinion.
Slapping out verses to explain why you hold the opinion you hold does not make your opinion fact.
pray4me
Active Member
I was using logic, it tells a man to leave his father and mother and cling to his wife and the two become one flesh. That's the entire verse which you are quoting. Now I get how a person may say that two becoming one could be referring to children but logic tells us that when a man leaves his father and mother to cling to his wife he's only going to leave them once. Is he to go back and live with his parents again for every wife he marries? Not likely. That's what my statement was. A man does not "Leave his father and mother" multiple times so the verse is most likely speaking of his first wife. The very next verse says "So they are no longer two, but one. Therefore what God has joined together, let man not separate."
The old testament verse Our Savior was quoting was Gen 2:24 "For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be united to his wife, and they will become one flesh." This was Adam speaking right after the creation of Eve also before the fruit of the tree was eaten. This was the verse our Savior chose to quote on marriage. If God had intended polygamy why did he make Adam only one woman?
The old testament verse Our Savior was quoting was Gen 2:24 "For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be united to his wife, and they will become one flesh." This was Adam speaking right after the creation of Eve also before the fruit of the tree was eaten. This was the verse our Savior chose to quote on marriage. If God had intended polygamy why did he make Adam only one woman?
uss_bigd
Well-Known Member
I guess i dont get the about the children part, but i agree with everything else... Good Job!!
Jeremy Mason
Well-Known Member
I think what uss_Bigd is asking is since this is a Biblical debate the parameters should be confined to the Bible.
rocka21
Brother Rock
Yes, its about two different scriptures that say two different things.
The most famous quoted scriptures are the ones that have no challenge in other gospels.
McBell
Resident Sourpuss
Then he should take his OFF TOPIC debate to another thread
Jeremy Mason
Well-Known Member
Ok you have a point.