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LDS beliefs and the Bible

Starfish

Please no sarcasm
Does this mean the practice of polygamy was not based on the NT of the bible? yes or no?
No. As I said, I don't think it's mentioned in the NT.

therefore sole based on "christ's personal revelation to Joseph smith" not on the NT? yes or no?
It was based on the OT and revelation to Joseph Smith. Not the NT.
 

uss_bigd

Well-Known Member
No. As I said, I don't think it's mentioned in the NT.


It was based on the OT and revelation to Joseph Smith. Not the NT.


therefore, if the NT does not accept polygamy and LDS doctrine accepted polygamy during the time the NT was in effect makes the LDS doctrine and the NT different from each other

is that correct?
 

Starfish

Please no sarcasm
therefore, if the NT does not accept polygamy and LDS doctrine accepted polygamy during the time the NT was in effect makes the LDS doctrine and the NT different from each other

is that correct?
The NT does not mention polygamy exactly. It talks more about divorce, which it explicitly condemns. Going by your reasoning, that would make LDS doctrine differ from the Book of Mormon, which also forbids polygamy during that era. It would also mean that divorce violates NT doctrine.

Polygamy is a principle that God sometimes commands, and sometimes forbids. Why? We don't exactly know. (Personally, I'm glad this is one of the forbidden times.)
 

uss_bigd

Well-Known Member
The NT does not mention polygamy exactly. It talks more about divorce, which it explicitly condemns. Going by your reasoning, that would make LDS doctrine differ from the Book of Mormon, which also forbids polygamy during that era. It would also mean that divorce violates NT doctrine.

Polygamy is a principle that God sometimes commands, and sometimes forbids. Why? We don't exactly know. (Personally, I'm glad this is one of the forbidden times.)


ok, let me rephrase the question:

The NT law was different from the LDS doctrine during the the time when LDS doctrine accepted polygamy. ( assuming there no other differences that has yet to be discussed )

basing on the parameters set above are the doctrines different or not?
 

Starfish

Please no sarcasm
ok, let me rephrase the question:

The NT law was different from the LDS doctrine during the the time when LDS doctrine accepted polygamy. ( assuming there no other diffeences that hasyet to be discusse )

basing on the parameters set above are the doctrines different or not?
It appears that your understanding of NT law is different than mine.
 

uss_bigd

Well-Known Member
It appears that your understanding of NT law is different than mine.


Accordingto you, the NT does not explicitly accept polygamy

LDS doctrine at one point explicitly accepted polygamy

how can this be under one and the same doctrine?

look, i do not mind if you base some of your beliefs on extra-biblical references. i just want to establish once and for all what your stance is.
 

Starfish

Please no sarcasm
Accordingto you, the NT does not explicitly accept polygamy

LDS doctrine at one point explicitly accepted polygamy

how can this be under one and the same doctrine?

look, i do not mind if you base some of your beliefs on extra-biblical references. i just want to establish once and for all what your stance is.
Please be patient as I'm trying to answer as clearly as I can. I'm new to this thread.

We never claimed that our doctrine is strictly Biblical. We have some doctrine that is barely mentioned, or not mentioned in the Bible. However, there are no contradictions. For example, the NT does not mention polygamy. So how can you say it does not accept polygamy? Just because the Bible does not mention something, this does not mean it does not exist.

So to reiterate: Some of our doctrine is in addition to Biblical doctrine, but not contradictory to Biblical doctrine.
 

Starfish

Please no sarcasm
how can this be under one and the same doctrine?
Are you saying that to not mention something in the NT, means that it is not accepted by the NT? With all due respect to the Jehovah Witnesses, this reminds me of their doctrine. The Bible does not mention birthdays or Christmas, therefore they do not celebrate them.

So do you condemn divorce? The Bible is very explicit about that. The NT also mentions baptism for the dead, therefore it accepts it?
 

uss_bigd

Well-Known Member
Are you saying that to not mention something in the NT, means that it is not accepted by the NT? With all due respect to the Jehovah Witnesses, this reminds me of their doctrine. The Bible does not mention birthdays or Christmas, therefore they do not celebrate them.

So do you condemn divorce? The Bible is very explicit about that. The NT also mentions baptism for the dead, therefore it accepts it?


Just answer the qustion on its face value;

LDS explicitly accepts polygamy:
bible( according to you and sola'lor) does not explicitly accept polygamy.

Are they different or not?
 

Bishka

Veteran Member
Just answer the qustion on its face value;

LDS explicitly accepts polygamy:
bible( according to you and sola'lor) does not explicitly accept polygamy.

Are they different or not?

Different times call for different measures.

According to you, you no longer have to be under the Old Testament Laws, but you still believe in some of them, cherry picking them and all. So, by your logic, you shouldn't accept the Old Testament as scripture anymore because you don't live by it's laws anymore.

Isn't that right? :cool:
 

uss_bigd

Well-Known Member
No, they're not.


ok, explain how mat 19:9, mat 19:6 and 1 tim 3:2 can be the same as explicitly accepting polygamy biblically speaking.

if you will refer to the book of mormon, just say your justification is not biblical.
if you cannot justify your answer biblically meaning the doctrines are indeed different.

thank you!
 

Bishka

Veteran Member
ok, explain how mat 19:9, mat 19:6 and 1 tim 3:2 can be the same as explicitly accepting polygamy biblically speaking.

if you will refer to the book of mormon, just say your justification is not biblical.
if you cannot justify your answer biblically meaning the doctrines are indeed different.

thank you!

No, thank you.
 

uss_bigd

Well-Known Member
Different times call for different measures.

According to you, you no longer have to be under the Old Testament Laws, but you still believe in some of them, cherry picking them and all. So, by your logic, you shouldn't accept the Old Testament as scripture anymore because you don't live by it's laws anymore.

Isn't that right? :cool:


What i said was the old testament is used to understand the NT.
 

Bishka

Veteran Member
YOU ARE NOT ANSWERING THE QUESTION OF THE THREAD.

And YOU are NOT answering MY questions......

See, I can scream just as loud as you.

You continue to ask questions and demand answers without giving the courtesy of answering any yourself.......Very un-Christlike. Tsk....Tsk.....
 

Starfish

Please no sarcasm
"ok, explain how mat 19:9, mat 19:6 and 1 tim 3:2 can be the same as explicitly accepting polygamy biblically speaking.

if you will refer to the book of mormon, just say your justification is not biblical.
if you cannot justify your answer biblically meaning the doctrines are indeed different.

thank you!"



As I said, polygamy is not allowed at different times and in different circumstances. The scriptures in Matthew are talking about divorce. The Bible obviously condemns that, but you seem to avoid that subject.
In Timothy, bishops and deacons are commanded to have only one wife. We interpret this to be saying they must not be divorced. I doubt if polygamy was practiced during that time, as there is no evidence of it.

BTW, 1 Tim 3: 3 says "not given to wine". That certainly agrees with LDS doctrine.
 

uss_bigd

Well-Known Member
As I said, polygamy is not allowed at different times and in different circumstances. The scriptures in Matthew are talking about divorce. The Bible obviously condemns that, but you seem to avoid that subject.
In Timothy, bishops and deacons are commanded to have only one wife. We interpret this to be saying they must not be divorced. I doubt if polygamy was practiced during that time, as there is no evidence of it.

BTW, 1 Tim 3: 3 says "not given to wine". That certainly agrees with LDS doctrine.


if may remind you, you answered this question this way:
Originally Posted by uss_bigd
Just answer the qustion on its face value;

LDS explicitly accepts polygamy:
bible( according to you and sola'lor) does not explicitly accept polygamy.

Are they different or not?


by starfish No, they're not.



MAT 19:9 also talks about having a "wife" in sigular form, and not to divorce her and marry another unless if she fornicates during the marriage.

so how can wife in singular form be the same as multiple wives?

1 Tim 3:2 says one wife. one wife, one wife , one wife... how can that accept polygamy?

GEE.

just say your justification is not biblical and we are done.
 
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