No*s
Captain Obvious
From Apostolic Succession. I have removed arguments pertaining to that subject and limited it to ND's discourse with me on hermeneutics.
NetDoc challenged:
I responded:
NetDoc responded by snipping everything away down to a convenient section, ignoring all the points:
I wrote in response:
Netdoc responds (note the omission of the smiley in his quoting me which changes a joke into an argument):
Now we're up to snuff on the hermeneutics stuff.
Here is my response to I Timothy 3.16 (part of this thread):
It is not twisting it to insist that 3.16 doesn't teach Sola Scriptura, when Paul names other authorities in the passage just before it to build up to Scripture. I'm, thus, not twisting it by trying to keep it in context and not ignore Paul's other statements on authority.
Paul names several authorities in the preceding verses. He names Tradition, telling Timothy to "continue in the things which you have learned and been assured of." He also tells him he knows from whom he learned them, meaning that "the things" he learned were given authority by who he learned them from. Next we get to Scripture, and we find that its authority is connected to the preceding with "and that from childhood you have known the Holy Scriptures."
In context, Paul names other authorities, and thus, could not have meant Scripture alone. And if he had, there was no New Testament. If he did mean Scripture alone, it means the NT is just as superfluous as Tradition would be, but I've never seen this verse applied that consistently for Sola Scriptura.
Finally, in 3.8 Paul makes a reference to the magicians Jannes and Jambres. Their names are not in the Bible, but they are in The Assumption of Moses. The use can easily qualify for his definition of Scripture in 3.16, so why do you not accept that book?
I think you can see, there is no "twisting" going on. The Orthodox approach is very consistent, and it takes the verse in its context. There is only a problem when someone wants to pluck it out to proof-text Sola Scriptura that there's a problem. In fact, from our perspective, it is not us who twist this verse...we take it in context, with a view of the history of the day, and with other internal references...all of which must be ignored to support Sola Scriptura with it. That, in effect, is "twisting" it.
My question again:
Now that I have answered that, you avoided the question I asked. Do you hold yourself to the same type of Scripture interpretation you are tried to force us into earlier in the thread: absolutely literal, timeless commands in Paul's epistles? When it makes a positive statement, it mandates that situation, doesn't put up a barrier, or anything of the sort. Do you believe you should submit to your own standard?
NetDoc challenged:
NetDoc said:Here are the criteria for becoming a bishop:
I Timothy 3:1 Here is a trustworthy saying: If anyone sets his heart on being an overseer, he desires a noble task. 2 Now the overseer must be above reproach, the husband of but one wife, temperate, self-controlled, respectable, hospitable, able to teach, 3 not given to drunkenness, not violent but gentle, not quarrelsome, not a lover of money. 4 He must manage his own family well and see that his children obey him with proper respect. 5 (If anyone does not know how to manage his own family, how can he take care of God's church?) 6 He must not be a recent convert, or he may become conceited and fall under the same judgment as the devil. 7 He must also have a good reputation with outsiders, so that he will not fall into disgrace and into the devil's trap.
Now correct me here if I have misread it, but aren't your Bishops celibate? How can they be Bishops/Elders/Overseers if they aren't a husband, or don't have a family?
I responded:
No*s said:You forget, we don't practice Sola Scriptura .
Things gradually change, and it's not in conflict with this verse. After all, why do we assume that "a bishop must be the husband of one wife" means that he must be married as opposed to he must not be a polygamist. If we apply your hermaneutic, a man who has no children, and is happily married could not be bishop, and a man with one child couldn't be bishop: "children" is plural.
Further, if we take the approach seriously, then the same bishop, who when his children died in an accident, must immediately give up the office, because he is no longer the father of two or more children. If his wife dies, the same thing is true.
There is no reason to assume it isn't a command against polygamy, remarriage, and how he addresses his household. At one time, there were married bishops, but that changed as the Churh grew and the needs on them changed. As the Church matured, so too her approach to her offices grow organically. Originally, there was one office. Then we got the deaconate. This addition wasn't given by Scripture, but as the need arose. Then there came a division between the priest (elder) and bishop (overseer), again as the need arose. All of this took place over time and can be seen in the NT, so there is solid precedent for this.
Now, when the Church moved from persecuted to triumphant, there were many more people, and the bishops didn't have to undergo the same trials as before. Monasticism, by the will of God, had arisen to give the same trials, and so, bishops increasingly came from monastic ranks, and it eventually became the norm.
The laying on of hands, though, didn't change. It is still practiced, and there can't be the same kinds of needs to change it. If you can supply a reason, then I would like to hear it.
Be careful, though, how much you insist to take legalistically, it might contradict your political views.
NetDoc responded by snipping everything away down to a convenient section, ignoring all the points:
NetDoc said:More importantly, the scriptures agree with this.No*s said:a man who has no children, and is happily married could not be bishop, and a man with one child couldn't be bishop: "children" is plural.
I wrote in response:
No*s said:It's saying quite a bit to declare what a Scripture says when there is more than one interpretation in the passage without giving more than a "the Scriptures agree with this." I could, in fact, give the exact same answer to you with my interpretation. It fits just as well, unless you can explain why it doesn't.
Further, are you willing to subject yourself to the same standard of interpretation on other, less comfortable, passages in the New Testament? If not, why do you demand of us something you will not practice yourself?
Netdoc responds (note the omission of the smiley in his quoting me which changes a joke into an argument):
NetDoc said:No, I don't forget that. However, it appears you practice "No Scriptura" whenever it disagrees with your practices.No*s said:You forget, we don't practice Sola Scriptura
So HOW DO YOU twist, er hermaneuticize I Timothy 3??? I would love to hear your take on it.
Now we're up to snuff on the hermeneutics stuff.
Here is my response to I Timothy 3.16 (part of this thread):
It is not twisting it to insist that 3.16 doesn't teach Sola Scriptura, when Paul names other authorities in the passage just before it to build up to Scripture. I'm, thus, not twisting it by trying to keep it in context and not ignore Paul's other statements on authority.
Paul names several authorities in the preceding verses. He names Tradition, telling Timothy to "continue in the things which you have learned and been assured of." He also tells him he knows from whom he learned them, meaning that "the things" he learned were given authority by who he learned them from. Next we get to Scripture, and we find that its authority is connected to the preceding with "and that from childhood you have known the Holy Scriptures."
In context, Paul names other authorities, and thus, could not have meant Scripture alone. And if he had, there was no New Testament. If he did mean Scripture alone, it means the NT is just as superfluous as Tradition would be, but I've never seen this verse applied that consistently for Sola Scriptura.
Finally, in 3.8 Paul makes a reference to the magicians Jannes and Jambres. Their names are not in the Bible, but they are in The Assumption of Moses. The use can easily qualify for his definition of Scripture in 3.16, so why do you not accept that book?
I think you can see, there is no "twisting" going on. The Orthodox approach is very consistent, and it takes the verse in its context. There is only a problem when someone wants to pluck it out to proof-text Sola Scriptura that there's a problem. In fact, from our perspective, it is not us who twist this verse...we take it in context, with a view of the history of the day, and with other internal references...all of which must be ignored to support Sola Scriptura with it. That, in effect, is "twisting" it.
My question again:
Now that I have answered that, you avoided the question I asked. Do you hold yourself to the same type of Scripture interpretation you are tried to force us into earlier in the thread: absolutely literal, timeless commands in Paul's epistles? When it makes a positive statement, it mandates that situation, doesn't put up a barrier, or anything of the sort. Do you believe you should submit to your own standard?