• Welcome to Religious Forums, a friendly forum to discuss all religions in a friendly surrounding.

    Your voice is missing! You will need to register to get access to the following site features:
    • Reply to discussions and create your own threads.
    • Our modern chat room. No add-ons or extensions required, just login and start chatting!
    • Access to private conversations with other members.

    We hope to see you as a part of our community soon!

"THE LORD'S DAY IS THE SABBATH DAY NOT SUNDAY ACCORDING TO SCRIPTURES

Soapy

Son of his Father: The Heir and Prince
The above are your words and claims Soapy unsupported by scripture. Then we have the scriptures disagreeing with your claims that the apostles did not call Jesus God here....

The disciples and scripture calling Jesus the God of creation...
  • John 20:28 28 Thomas answered him, “MY LORD AND MY GOD!”
  • Titus 2:13 13 waiting for our blessed hope, the appearing of the glory of OUR GREAT GOD AND SAVIOR JESUS CHRIST
  • Hebrews 1:1-2;8 1, God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spoke in time past to the fathers by the prophets, 2, HAS IN THESE LAST DAYS SPOKEN TO US BY HIS SON, WHOM HE HAS APPOINTED HEIR OF ALL THINGS, BY WHOM ALSO HE MADE THE WORLDS; 3, WHO BEING THE BRIGHTNESS OF HIS GLORY, AND THE EXPRESS IMAGE OF HIS PERSON, AND UPHOLDING ALL THINGS BY THE WORD OF HIS POWER, when he had by himself purged our sins, sat down on the right hand of the Majesty on high
  • Hebrews 1:8 8 BUT TO THE SON HE (the father) SAYS "YOUR THRONE O GOD (Jesus) IS FOREVER AND EVER, the scepter of uprightness is the scepter of your kingdom.
  • Matthew 1:23 23 “Behold, the virgin shall conceive and bear a son, and they shall call his name IMMANUEL WHICH MEANS GOD WITH US.
  • John 1:1-4 ;14 1, IN THE BEGINNING WAS THE WORD, AND THE WORD WAS WITH GOD, AND THE WORD WAS GOD. 2, THE SAME WAS IN THE BEGINNING WITH GOD. 3, ALL THINGS WERE MADE BY HIM; AND WITHOUT HIM WAS NOT ANY THING MADE THAT WAS MADE. 4, In him was life; and the life was the light of men. [10] He was in the world, and the world was made through Him, and the world did not know Him. [14], AND THE WORD WAS MADE FLESH, AND DWELT AMONG US, AND WE BEHELD HIS GLORY, THE GLORY AS OF THE ONLY BEGOTTEN OF THE FATHER, FULL OF GRACE AND TRUTH.
  • 2 Peter 1:1 Simeon Peter, a servant and apostle of Jesus Christ, To those who have obtained a faith of equal standing with ours by the righteousness of OUR GOD AND SAVOIR JESUS CHRIST
  • John 8:58 Jesus said to them: “Timeless truth I speak to you: Before Abraham would exist, I AM THE LIVING GOD.” (Aramaic)
  • 1 John 5:20 20 And we know that the Son of God has come and has given us understanding, so that we may know him who is true; and we are in him who is true, in his Son JESUS CHRIST HE IS THE TRUE GOD AND ETERNAL LIFE.
All of the scriptures posted above disagree with everything you posted word for word Soapy. Now who should I believe and follow; Soapy? or Gods Words (scripture) -Easy one for me. Sorry I do not believe you Soapy. I prefer the scriptures you pretend do not exist that are in disagreement with you. For me I believe we are better off just to simply believe what the scriptures say word for word, rather than pretending they do not exist.

Take Care.
3rdAngel, every single quoted verse from you has been corrupted either in content or by interpretation just as Jesus said would happen:
  • “I warn everyone who hears the words of the prophecy of this scroll: If anyone adds anything to them, God will add to that person the plagues described in this scroll.” (Rev 22:18)
This is not a claim against you, but rather, those who corrupted the scriptures so that you now believe the lie that is suggested by those corrupted verses.

I am sure by now you realise that these verses are not in keeping with the rest of scriptures but are too embarrassed to admit it - it’s now just a game to you of saving face - oops, too late!!

Your tactic of not answering questions I put to you does you no credit - and, in fact, points to the fact that you know you are at fault. Merely posting - and reposting - without explanation those verse you claim show Jesus is God (goodness gracious how you could ever imagine such a thing!) just highlights the truth that you would not be able to explain those verses in the timeline of scripture truth.

For instance, the ‘Thomas called Jesus ‘My God’ verse. Thomas did not call Jesus ‘God’… he called him ‘MY God’. So right there the who ‘Jesus is God’ falls flat on its face in that it is said that ‘No one has seen God at any time - only Jesus has REVEALED HIM’ (which pertains to the Father).

But also, and more critically, Jesus had only just told Thomas:
  • “See my hands and my feet, that it is I myself. Touch me, and see. For a spirit does not have flesh and bones as you see that I have.”” (Luke 24:39)
‘God’ does not have flesh and bone - He is Spirit only!

And again, what was the reaction of the other disciples?

But here’s the weirdest part: After ‘seeing God’… Thomas just went back to his ‘day job’ —- can you believe that - Thomas had just ‘seen ALMIGHTY GOD’ - and he DID NOT DIE nor did it have any profound impact on him… in fact he just carried on his secular life as did the other disciples.

And then Jesus (oops, God) was hungry and requested to eat broiled fish. God was hungry for earthly food….

And since, it seems, only Thomas ‘saw Almighty God’ and the ten other disciples - including the one who was their great leader, Peter - saw nothing but THE MAN, Jesus Christ, though now a glorified man.

And what is ‘The Gospel of Thomas’?
 

Soapy

Son of his Father: The Heir and Prince
The above are your words and claims Soapy unsupported by scripture. Then we have the scriptures disagreeing with your claims that the apostles did not call Jesus God here....

The disciples and scripture calling Jesus the God of creation...
  • John 20:28 28 Thomas answered him, “MY LORD AND MY GOD!”
  • Titus 2:13 13 waiting for our blessed hope, the appearing of the glory of OUR GREAT GOD AND SAVIOR JESUS CHRIST
  • Hebrews 1:1-2;8 1, God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spoke in time past to the fathers by the prophets, 2, HAS IN THESE LAST DAYS SPOKEN TO US BY HIS SON, WHOM HE HAS APPOINTED HEIR OF ALL THINGS, BY WHOM ALSO HE MADE THE WORLDS; 3, WHO BEING THE BRIGHTNESS OF HIS GLORY, AND THE EXPRESS IMAGE OF HIS PERSON, AND UPHOLDING ALL THINGS BY THE WORD OF HIS POWER, when he had by himself purged our sins, sat down on the right hand of the Majesty on high
If God spoke to us by his son, how is his son, God whom he spoke by?

If God APPOINTED the Son to be Heir, how then is the son, God who appointed him as heir?
Indeed can an heir also be God whom he is heir to?
  • Hebrews 1:8 8 BUT TO THE SON HE (the father) SAYS "YOUR THRONE O GOD (Jesus) IS FOREVER AND EVER, the scepter of uprightness is the scepter of your kingdom.
I notice you don’t quote the verse that this refers to in the Old Testament - It is ALSO referring to king David - So are you also calling king David, God?
  • Matthew 1:23 23 “Behold, the virgin shall conceive and bear a son, and they shall call his name IMMANUEL WHICH MEANS GOD WITH US.
’God with us’ is a TITLE. It is not a statement of fact. The people gave him that title as a WAR TAG… They thought that Jesus would be a great MILITARY leader who would rid them of their romans overlords. It is not uncommon for the GREAT HERO SENT BY A KING to be applauded and seen as positive support from the king, saying, “The King is with us” (The king supports our position).
  • John 1:1-4 ;14 1, IN THE BEGINNING WAS THE WORD, AND THE WORD WAS WITH GOD, AND THE WORD WAS GOD. 2, THE SAME WAS IN THE BEGINNING WITH GOD. 3, ALL THINGS WERE MADE BY HIM; AND WITHOUT HIM WAS NOT ANY THING MADE THAT WAS MADE. 4, In him was life; and the life was the light of men. [10] He was in the world, and the world was made through Him, and the world did not know Him. [14], AND THE WORD WAS MADE FLESH, AND DWELT AMONG US, AND WE BEHELD HIS GLORY, THE GLORY AS OF THE ONLY BEGOTTEN OF THE FATHER, FULL OF GRACE AND TRUTH.
God’s word was made flesh: The word that God spike saying he would send a saviour CAME TRUE - Put on flesh!
  • 2 Peter 1:1 Simeon Peter, a servant and apostle of Jesus Christ, To those who have obtained a faith of equal standing with ours by the righteousness of OUR GOD AND SAVOIR JESUS CHRIST
And what does the very next verse say:
  • “Grace and peace be yours in abundance through the knowledge of God and of Jesus our Lord.” (2 Peter 1:2)
It’s refers to TWO PERSONS, ‘God’ and ‘Jesus’. This shows that the first verse (v.1) has been corrupted to make it seem that the writer is claiming Jesus as both God and Saviour.
  • John 8:58 Jesus said to them: “Timeless truth I speak to you: Before Abraham would exist, I AM THE LIVING GOD.” (Aramaic)
Your quote is not even a valid one. You must have googled some weird websites to geg that version and therefore wholly discredited yourself. Desperate - You know it - you show it!!
  • 1 John 5:20 20 And we know that the Son of God has come and has given us understanding, so that we may know him who is true; and we are in him who is true, in his Son JESUS CHRIST HE IS THE TRUE GOD AND ETERNAL LIFE.
The thing is that the verse tells it straight off: ‘THE SON OF GOD’ has come and given us knowledge of HIM WHO IS TRUE…. Knowledge of Almighty God: the Father, just as Jesus says:
  • “[Father,] I gave them the words you gave me and they accepted them. They knew with certainty that I came from you, and they believed that you sent me.” (John 17:8)
Jesus revealed God: the Father, with the words God gave Jesus to give to them:
  • “The revelation from Jesus Christ, which God gave him to show his servants …” (Rev 1:1 paraphrased)
All of the scriptures posted above disagree with everything you posted word for word Soapy. Now who should I believe and follow; Soapy? or Gods Words (scripture) -Easy one for me. Sorry I do not believe you Soapy. I prefer the scriptures you pretend do not exist that are in disagreement with you. For me I believe we are better off just to simply believe what the scriptures say word for word, rather than pretending they do not exist.

Take Care.
3rdAngel, if you are going to post corrupted verses then at least explain how they do not fit against true verses elsewhere in scriptures. The fact you only oust the verses without any explanation as to what the verse is saying, nor how there is no cohesion with truth speaks volume against your belief and the purpose of your posting here.
 
Last edited:

3rdAngel

Well-Known Member
If God spoke to us by his son, how is his son, God whom he spoke by?

If God APPOINTED the Son to be Heir, how then is the son, God who appointed him as heir?
Indeed can an heir also be God whom he is heir to?

I notice you don’t quote the verse that this refers to in the Old Testament - It is ALSO referring to king David - So are you also calling king David, God?

’God with us’ is a TITLE. It is not a statement of fact. The people gave him that title as a WAR TAG… They thought that Jesus would be a great MILITARY leader who would rid them of their romans overlords. It is not uncommon for the GREAT HERO SENT BY A KING to be applauded and seen as positive support from the king, saying, “The King is with us” (The king supports our position).

God’s word was made flesh: The word that God spike saying he would send a saviour CAME TRUE - Put on flesh!

And
what does the very next verse say:
  • “Grace and peace be yours in abundance through the knowledge of God and of Jesus our Lord.” (2 Peter 1:2)
It’s refers to TWO PERSONS, ‘God’ and ‘Jesus’. This shows that the first verse (v.1) has been corrupted to make it seem that the writer is claiming Jesus as both God and Saviour.

Your quote is not even a valid one. You must have googled some weird websites to geg that version and therefore wholly discredited yourself. Desperate - You know it - you show it!!

The thing is that the verse tells it straight off: ‘THE SON OF GOD’ has come and given us knowledge of HIM WHO IS TRUE…. Knowledge of Almighty God: the Father, just as Jesus says:
  • “[Father,] I gave them the words you gave me and they accepted them. They knew with certainty that I came from you, and they believed that you sent me.” (John 17:8)
Jesus revealed God: the Father, with the words God gave Jesus to give to them:
  • “The revelation from Jesus Christ, which God gave him to show his servants …” (Rev 1:1 paraphrased)

3rdAngel, if you are going to post corrupted verses then at least explain how they do not fit against true verses elsewhere in scriptures. The fact you only oust the verses without any explanation as to what the verse is saying, nor how there is no cohesion with truth speaks volume against your belief and the purpose of your posting here.

Once again your post does not address anything in the post and scriptures you are responding to that are in disagreement with you. I will let scripture do the talking here once more. As posted a little earlier, your post Soapy are your words and claims Soapy unsupported by scripture. Then we have the scriptures disagreeing with your claims that the apostles did not call Jesus God here....

The disciples and scripture calling Jesus the God of creation...
  • John 20:28 28 Thomas answered him, “MY LORD AND MY GOD!”
  • Titus 2:13 13 waiting for our blessed hope, the appearing of the glory of OUR GREAT GOD AND SAVIOR JESUS CHRIST
  • Hebrews 1:1-2;8 1, God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spoke in time past to the fathers by the prophets, 2, HAS IN THESE LAST DAYS SPOKEN TO US BY HIS SON, WHOM HE HAS APPOINTED HEIR OF ALL THINGS, BY WHOM ALSO HE MADE THE WORLDS; 3, WHO BEING THE BRIGHTNESS OF HIS GLORY, AND THE EXPRESS IMAGE OF HIS PERSON, AND UPHOLDING ALL THINGS BY THE WORD OF HIS POWER, when he had by himself purged our sins, sat down on the right hand of the Majesty on high
  • Hebrews 1:8 8 BUT TO THE SON HE (the father) SAYS "YOUR THRONE O GOD (Jesus) IS FOREVER AND EVER, the scepter of uprightness is the scepter of your kingdom.
  • Matthew 1:23 23 “Behold, the virgin shall conceive and bear a son, and they shall call his name IMMANUEL WHICH MEANS GOD WITH US.
  • John 1:1-4 ;14 1, IN THE BEGINNING WAS THE WORD, AND THE WORD WAS WITH GOD, AND THE WORD WAS GOD. 2, THE SAME WAS IN THE BEGINNING WITH GOD. 3, ALL THINGS WERE MADE BY HIM; AND WITHOUT HIM WAS NOT ANY THING MADE THAT WAS MADE. 4, In him was life; and the life was the light of men. [10] He was in the world, and the world was made through Him, and the world did not know Him. [14], AND THE WORD WAS MADE FLESH, AND DWELT AMONG US, AND WE BEHELD HIS GLORY, THE GLORY AS OF THE ONLY BEGOTTEN OF THE FATHER, FULL OF GRACE AND TRUTH.
  • 2 Peter 1:1 Simeon Peter, a servant and apostle of Jesus Christ, To those who have obtained a faith of equal standing with ours by the righteousness of OUR GOD AND SAVOIR JESUS CHRIST
  • John 8:58 Jesus said to them: “Timeless truth I speak to you: Before Abraham would exist, I AM THE LIVING GOD.” (Aramaic)
  • 1 John 5:20 20 And we know that the Son of God has come and has given us understanding, so that we may know him who is true; and we are in him who is true, in his Son JESUS CHRIST HE IS THE TRUE GOD AND ETERNAL LIFE.
All of the scriptures posted above disagree with everything you posted word for word Soapy. Now who should I believe and follow; Soapy? or Gods Words (scripture) -Easy one for me. Sorry I do not believe you Soapy. I prefer the scriptures you pretend do not exist that are in disagreement with you. For me I believe we are better off just to simply believe what the scriptures say word for word, rather than pretending they do not exist.

Take Care.
 

3rdAngel

Well-Known Member
3rdAngel, every single quoted verse from you has been corrupted either in content or by interpretation just as Jesus said would happen:
  • “I warn everyone who hears the words of the prophecy of this scroll: If anyone adds anything to them, God will add to that person the plagues described in this scroll.” (Rev 22:18)
This is not a claim against you, but rather, those who corrupted the scriptures so that you now believe the lie that is suggested by those corrupted verses.

I am sure by now you realise that these verses are not in keeping with the rest of scriptures but are too embarrassed to admit it - it’s now just a game to you of saving face - oops, too late!!

Your tactic of not answering questions I put to you does you no credit - and, in fact, points to the fact that you know you are at fault. Merely posting - and reposting - without explanation those verse you claim show Jesus is God (goodness gracious how you could ever imagine such a thing!) just highlights the truth that you would not be able to explain those verses in the timeline of scripture truth.

For instance, the ‘Thomas called Jesus ‘My God’ verse. Thomas did not call Jesus ‘God’… he called him ‘MY God’. So right there the who ‘Jesus is God’ falls flat on its face in that it is said that ‘No one has seen God at any time - only Jesus has REVEALED HIM’ (which pertains to the Father).

But also, and more critically, Jesus had only just told Thomas:
  • “See my hands and my feet, that it is I myself. Touch me, and see. For a spirit does not have flesh and bones as you see that I have.”” (Luke 24:39)
‘God’ does not have flesh and bone - He is Spirit only!

And again, what was the reaction of the other disciples?

But here’s the weirdest part: After ‘seeing God’… Thomas just went back to his ‘day job’ —- can you believe that - Thomas had just ‘seen ALMIGHTY GOD’ - and he DID NOT DIE nor did it have any profound impact on him… in fact he just carried on his secular life as did the other disciples.

And then Jesus (oops, God) was hungry and requested to eat broiled fish. God was hungry for earthly food….

And since, it seems, only Thomas ‘saw Almighty God’ and the ten other disciples - including the one who was their great leader, Peter - saw nothing but THE MAN, Jesus Christ, though now a glorified man.

And what is ‘The Gospel of Thomas’?
I see. So your response to the scripture shared with you that are in disagreement with you is not to believe the scriptures shared with you because they have all been corrupted and we are to believe you instead? Sorry Soapy, I do not think so.

You take care now.
 
Last edited:

Soapy

Son of his Father: The Heir and Prince
I see. So your response to the scripture shared with you that are in disagreement with you is not to believe the scriptures shared with you because they have all been corrupted and we are to believe you instead? Sorry Soapy, I do not think so.

You take care now.
I see your response is to just keep repeating yourself because you cannot dispute the truth you are reading from me.

I explain to you why the scripture verses are in error - that they are not genuine verses but have been horribly mangled to make it appear that Jesus is God … despite the severe errors such as:
‘God gave Jesus the words to say to the people’ but trinity says that Jesus is the God that gave him the words to say’.

And God sent a saviour for humanity. It was not God, Himself, who came as that saviour… so saying, you would therefore need to ‘Crucify Christ’ again.

Scriptures says that you must believe in God AND Christ. It certainly did not say ‘God who is Christ’ and, indeed, how could be God be His own Christ… did God anoint Himself?

By the way, what is your definition of the term ‘God’?

I forgot to add to the quote where God speaks to king David saying, ‘Thy throne, O God, is … eternal’ (paraphrased).

The term, ‘O God’ means ‘O Mighty One’… mighty as in ‘Great Ruler’, ‘Glorious’, ‘Masterful’, ‘Heroic’. And certainly David was all of those things.

The verse is not calling David, almighty God. It is prophesying that eternal throne of king David that Jesus Christ will inherit AFTER he fulfils all things that GOD SENT HIM to perform!

Indeed, is GOD ever said to inherit anything? No, of course not, because He already IS the owner of everything - The owner and good Father who gives good things of what is His to His Sons:
  • Jesus is endowed with the Father’s spirit
  • Jesus is taught godly knowledge from and by the Father
  • Jesus is granted use of the spirit of the Father
  • Jesus is adopted as ‘Son’ of the Father
  • Jesus is upheld in righteousness by the Father
  • Jesus is granted those of mankind who are the fathers to aid Jesus is his quest
  • Jesus is set apart (Consecrated) by the Father
  • Jesus is granted to be resurrected by the Father
  • Jesus is given an glorified immortal body on his resurrection by the Father
  • Jesus is raised up to Heaven by the Father which no one has ever had done to them
  • Jesus is granted to be seated next to the Father in Heaven
  • Jesus is granted all power and authority from the Father God (but not the Father’s throne!
  • Jesus is given his own kingdom to be ruler over - creation
Is there a verse saying that God is granted anything?
 

3rdAngel

Well-Known Member
I see your response is to just keep repeating yourself because you cannot dispute the truth you are reading from me.

I explain to you why the scripture verses are in error - that they are not genuine verses but have been horribly mangled to make it appear that Jesus is God … despite the severe errors such as:
‘God gave Jesus the words to say to the people’ but trinity says that Jesus is the God that gave him the words to say’.

And God sent a saviour for humanity. It was not God, Himself, who came as that saviour… so saying, you would therefore need to ‘Crucify Christ’ again.

Scriptures says that you must believe in God AND Christ. It certainly did not say ‘God who is Christ’ and, indeed, how could be God be His own Christ… did God anoint Himself?

By the way, what is your definition of the term ‘God’?

I forgot to add to the quote where God speaks to king David saying, ‘Thy throne, O God, is … eternal’ (paraphrased).

The term, ‘O God’ means ‘O Mighty One’… mighty as in ‘Great Ruler’, ‘Glorious’, ‘Masterful’, ‘Heroic’. And certainly David was all of those things.

The verse is not calling David, almighty God. It is prophesying that eternal throne of king David that Jesus Christ will inherit AFTER he fulfils all things that GOD SENT HIM to perform!

Indeed, is GOD ever said to inherit anything? No, of course not, because He already IS the owner of everything - The owner and good Father who gives good things of what is His to His Sons:
  • Jesus is endowed with the Father’s spirit
  • Jesus is taught godly knowledge from and by the Father
  • Jesus is granted use of the spirit of the Father
  • Jesus is adopted as ‘Son’ of the Father
  • Jesus is upheld in righteousness by the Father
  • Jesus is granted those of mankind who are the fathers to aid Jesus is his quest
  • Jesus is set apart (Consecrated) by the Father
  • Jesus is granted to be resurrected by the Father
  • Jesus is given an glorified immortal body on his resurrection by the Father
  • Jesus is raised up to Heaven by the Father which no one has ever had done to them
  • Jesus is granted to be seated next to the Father in Heaven
  • Jesus is granted all power and authority from the Father God (but not the Father’s throne!
  • Jesus is given his own kingdom to be ruler over - creation
Is there a verse saying that God is granted anything?

Yes I repeat the scriptures, as shown in post # 2256 linked because you have not addressed any of these scriptures that disagrees with you word for word accept to claim that all the texts are corrupted. You claim this unsupported by any evidence. Why do you think I say to you ignoring the scriptures do not make them disappear. Once again there is nothing you have posted here that disagrees with the scriptures already shared with you stating that Jesus is God and the creator of heaven and earth. You seem to not be able to understand that the scriptures say word for word that
  • Jesus is God (John 20:28 28; Titus 2:13 13 ; Hebrews 1:1-2;8 ; Hebrews 1:8 8; Matthew 1:23 23; John 1:1-4 ;14 ; 2 Peter 1:1; John 8:58; 1 John 5:20)
  • Jesus is the God of creation (John 1:1-4; 14; Hebrews 1:1-2; Hebrews 1:8; Colossians 1:16)
  • Jesus was before creation (John 1:1-4; 14; Hebrews 1:1-2; Hebrews 1:8; Colossians 1:16)
  • Jesus and the father and the holy Spirit are one (1 John 5:7; John 10:30; Genesis 1:26)
  • Jesus states also in his own words that He was before Abraham (John 8:58)
  • The creation of mankind was with God plural not singular (Genesis 1:26; Genesis 3:22; Genesis 11:7)
  • The gospel commission is in the name of God the faith, son and holy Spirit (Matthew 28:19; 1 John 5:7)
  • God the son became a man (John 1:1-4; John 1:14)
  • God the son lived as a man to fulfill all righteousness (John 3:15-17)
  • God the son lived as a man dependent on God as a man (John 5:30; Philippians 2:5-7)
  • God the son lived as a man to be our example showing us how to follow God (1 Peter 2:2; John 13:15)
  • After the resurrection God the son who became a man continues as God the son (Hebrews 1:8-12)
Unlike you Soapy I can provide scripture that is supportive of what I believe showing why your teachings are not biblical. Notice that there is nothing in your post that is in disagreement with anything I have said to you? Perhaps you need to reconsider what you believe and receive correction and be blessed.

Take Care.
 
Last edited:

Soapy

Son of his Father: The Heir and Prince
Yes I repeat the scriptures, as shown in post # 2256 linked because you have not addressed any of these scriptures that disagrees with you word for word accept to claim that all the texts are corrupted. You claim this unsupported by any evidence. Why do you think I say to you ignoring the scriptures do not make them disappear. Once again there is nothing you have posted here that disagrees with the scriptures already shared with you stating that Jesus is God and the creator of heaven and earth. You seem to not be able to understand that the scriptures say word for word that
  • Jesus is God (John 20:28 28; Titus 2:13 13 ; Hebrews 1:1-2;8 ; Hebrews 1:8 8; Matthew 1:23 23; John 1:1-4 ;14 ; 2 Peter 1:1; John 8:58; 1 John 5:20)
  • Jesus is the God of creation (John 1:1-4; 14; Hebrews 1:1-2; Hebrews 1:8; Colossians 1:16)
  • Jesus was before creation (John 1:1-4; 14; Hebrews 1:1-2; Hebrews 1:8; Colossians 1:16)
  • Jesus and the father and the holy Spirit are one (1 John 5:7; John 10:30; Genesis 1:26)
  • Jesus states also in his own words that He was before Abraham (John 8:58)
  • The creation of mankind was with God plural not singular (Genesis 1:26; Genesis 3:22; Genesis 11:7)
  • The gospel commission is in the name of God the faith, son and holy Spirit (Matthew 28:19; 1 John 5:7)
  • God the son became a man (John 1:1-4; John 1:14)
  • God the son lived as a man to fulfill all righteousness (John 3:15-17)
  • God the son lived as a man dependent on God as a man (John 5:30; Philippians 2:5-7)
  • God the son lived as a man to be our example showing us how to follow God (1 Peter 2:2; John 13:15)
  • After the resurrection God the son who became a man continues as God the son (Hebrews 1:8-12)
Unlike you Soapy I can provide scripture that is supportive of what I believe showing why your teachings are not biblical. Notice that there is nothing in your post that is in disagreement with anything I have said to you? Perhaps you need to reconsider what you believe and receive correction and be blessed.

Take Care.
Well, it is certainly oh what YOU believe - that doesn’t make it true!

And, Seth was also before Abraham so I guess to you that means Seth was also God…

And I thought you said it was Jesus who created all things - cos now you are saying that the three gods created all things!

I think you are even confusing yourself in your desperation.

You keep saying that there is nothing I say that is in disagreement with what you said. Well, you know that isn’t true - and you keep saying I’m not answering to what you ask me - You know that isn’t true, either.

And because you say these things that are not true - but not only that - I will no longer reply to your posts.
 

3rdAngel

Well-Known Member
Well, it is certainly oh what YOU believe - that doesn’t make it true!

And, Seth was also before Abraham so I guess to you that means Seth was also God…

And I thought you said it was Jesus who created all things - cos now you are saying that the three gods created all things!

I think you are even confusing yourself in your desperation.

You keep saying that there is nothing I say that is in disagreement with what you said. Well, you know that isn’t true - and you keep saying I’m not answering to what you ask me - You know that isn’t true, either.

And because you say these things that are not true - but not only that - I will no longer reply to your posts.
Your post here is not truthful or coherent Soapy. I will leave you with your false personal accusations and let my posts and scriptures posted to you that are in disagreement with you do all the talking.

Take Care dear friend.
 

3rdAngel

Well-Known Member
Would like to get back to the OP now...

SUNDAY WORSHIP IS NOT THE LORD'S DAY

The term "the Lord's day" was used by some in the early Church as a reference to Sunday worship in celebration of the resurrection of Jesus. It comes from a scripture in the bible found in Revelation 1
  • REVELATION 1:10 10, I was in the Spirit on the Lord's day, and heard behind me a great voice, as of a trumpet
The Greek words used for the day that JOHN was in the Spirit of is the for Lord's day are
  • REVELATION 1:10 εγενομην εν πνευματι εν τη κυριακη ημερα και ηκουσα οπισω μου φωνην μεγαλην ως σαλπιγγος
The word "κυριακη" (translit. "kuriake") is an Adjective - Dative - Singular - Feminine. This means it is being used as a 'possessive' as ownership or belonging to ("of", see 1 Corinthians 11:20, "the Lord's supper"), which means the "day" in context belongs to "the Lord". It is literally "the Lord's (belonging to) day". This means, that the "day" in context is uniquely "the Lord's" out of all the 7 days of the week, for the day under consideration is that which exists within the week, as a day which repeats weekly. This is extremely important, as those who incorrectly assume it to mean "the first [day] of the week" in lieu of Jesus' resurrection, cannot get a weekly occurrence out of a one-time event, in fulfillment of typology of the Firstfruit/Wavesheaf in Leviticus 23:9-14, as made known in 1 Corinthians 15:20,23

The problem here however is that there is not a single scripture that references Sunday or the first day of the week (bible names for the days of the week) to being "the Lords day" in scripture.

According to the scripture "the Lords day" however can be referenced to "the Sabbath day" of Gods' 4th commandment found in Exodus 20:8-11.

Letting the scriptures answer this question
  • WHAT DAY IS THE LORD'S DAY ACCORDING TO THE SCRIPTURES?
  • MATTHEW 12:8 FOR THE SON OF MAN IS LORD EVEN OF THE SABBATH DAY
This then promotes a bit of a dilemma for the Church as there is not a single scripture in all of the bible that days "the Lords day" from Revelation 1:10 is Sunday. Yet there is many scriptures referencing "the Lords day" or Gods' specific claims to ownership of any particular day to the Sabbath day that he blessed and set aside as a holy day of rest for a memorial of creation (see Genesis 2:1-3) and made one of Gods' 10 commandments (Exodus 20:8-11).

God's "ownership" of the Sabbath day or "Lord's day is also repeated elsewhere as "MY" (ownership of the day as in the Greek used in REVELATION 1:10 κυριακη). Other scriptures in the bible pointing to "the Lords day" as being the Sabbath day...
  • MATTHEW 12:8 FOR THE SON OF MAN IS LORD EVEN OF THE SABBATH DAY. (the Sabbath day is Lord's day)
  • ISAIAH 58:13-14 [13], If you turn away your foot from the SABBATH, from doing your pleasure on MY HOLY DAY (God's claim to ownership of the Sabbath day); and call the sabbath a delight, the holy of the LORD, honorable; and shall honor him, not doing your own ways, nor finding your own pleasure, nor speaking your own words: [14], Then shall you delight yourself in the LORD; and I will cause you to ride on the high places of the earth, and feed you with the heritage of Jacob your father: for the mouth of the LORD has spoken it.
  • LEVITICUS 19:30 You shall keep MY SABBATHS, (God's claim to ownership of the Sabbath day)and reverence my sanctuary: I am the LORD.
  • EZEKIEL 20:12 Moreover also I gave them MY SABBATHS, (God's claim to ownership of the Sabbath day) to be a sign between me and them, that they might know that I am the LORD that sanctify them.
κυριακῇ ἡμέρᾳ used in Revelations 1:10 is in reference to the Lord's ownership of the day. It does not say that this day is in reference to μιά των σαββάτων which means the FIRST DAY OF THE WEEK.

............................

Your challenge here in this OP is to prove from the scriptures alone that the Lord's DAY is in reference to the First day of the week. If you cannot all you have is a teaching and tradition of men that is not supported in the scriptures. There is not a single scripture in all the bible that refers to Sunday as being "the Lords day".

May God bless you as you seek Him through His Word.
 

3rdAngel

Well-Known Member
Summary there is no scripture in all of the bible that says "Sunday" is "the Lords day". This is a man-made teaching and tradition that has led many to break Gods 4th commandment either knowingly or unknowingly. The seventh day Sabbath of Gods 4th commandment is "the Lords day" according to the scriptures. May God bless you as you seek him through His Word.
 

Oeste

Well-Known Member
The term "the Lord's day" was used by some in the early Church as a reference to Sunday worship in celebration of the resurrection of Jesus. It comes from a scripture in the bible found in Revelation 1
  • REVELATION 1:10 10, I was in the Spirit on the Lord's day, and heard behind me a great voice, as of a trumpet

Correct!

  • REVELATION 1:10 εγενομην εν πνευματι εν τη κυριακη ημερα και ηκουσα οπισω μου φωνην μεγαλην ως σαλπιγγος
The word "κυριακη" (translit. "kuriake") is an Adjective - Dative - Singular - Feminine. This means it is being used as a 'possessive' as ownership or belonging to ("of", see 1 Corinthians 11:20, "the Lord's supper"), which means the "day" in context belongs to "the Lord". It is literally "the Lord's (belonging to) day". This means, that the "day" in context is uniquely "the Lord's" out of all the 7 days of the week, for the day under consideration is that which exists within the week, as a day which repeats weekly.

Hi @3rdAngel ,

I am not going to look this up, and accept your definition subject to later review (when I find some time, which just seems to be in short supply these days). :(

This is extremely important, as those who incorrectly assume it to mean "the first [day] of the week" in lieu of Jesus' resurrection, cannot get a weekly occurrence out of a one-time event, in fulfillment of typology of the Firstfruit/Wavesheaf in Leviticus 23:9-14, as made known in 1 Corinthians 15:20,23

WHOA! :)

Let's stop here and analyze what you've just told us.

Perhaps you can go into a little more detail.

1. If we can't get a weekly occurrence out of a one-time event, how do we get a yearly occurrence out of a one-time event? I seem to remember the Jews had Passover, and we (Christians) have the Emblems!

Your premise is unsubstantiated and unscriptural. Since it appears as an opening remark in your OP, I suspect it is foundational and perhaps fatal to any further arguments you might make.

Please elaborate on this, develop it further, or give us another basis as to why the Lord's Day, which the Church associates with the Resurrection, is forbidden from being a yearly event. Resurrection Sunday is a unique day made possible by the Lord and well vetted in scripture. Why wouldn't we celebrate it?

The problem here however is that there is not a single scripture that references Sunday or the first day of the week (bible names for the days of the week) to being "the Lords day" in scripture.

There is not a single scripture that references "Saturday", "Monday" or "Wednesday" either. The Lord's Day, as you have just stated, is the day Christ was resurrected. We have determined, from reading scripture that his resurrection occurred on SUNDAY.

Do you believe the Church somehow got this wrong? On what basis??

According to the scripture "the Lords day" however can be referenced to "the Sabbath day" of Gods' 4th commandment found in Exodus 20:8-11.

Okay, so let's take a look:

Exodus 20:8 “Remember the Sabbath day, to keep it holy. 9 Six days you shall labor and do all your work, 10 but the seventh day is the Sabbath of the Lord your God. In it you shall do no work: you, nor your son, nor your daughter, nor your male servant, nor your female servant, nor your cattle, nor your stranger who is within your gates. 11 For in six days the Lord made the heavens and the earth, the sea, and all that is in them, and rested the seventh day. Therefore the Lord blessed the Sabbath day and hallowed it.​

I'm not seeing the "Lord's Day" here.

As you already pointed out, the Lord's Day to the catholic (small 'c', meaning historic, traditional, or "universal") church has always been Resurrection Day, and not the Sabbath. Can you explain how the Sabbath became the Lord' Day? Is this your personal assertion, or are you claiming this as the position of your church?

As far as the historic church, we can take a peek at some of the church's Patriarchs, and see what they had to say:

Chapter XXVI.—No salvation to the Jews except through Christ. (Justin Martyr, Dialogue with Trypho, mid 2nd century):
And I replied, “I do not say so; but those who have persecuted and do persecute Christ, if they do not repent, shall not inherit anything on the holy mountain. But the Gentiles, who have believed on Him, and have repented of the sins which they have committed, they shall receive the inheritance along with the patriarchs and the prophets, and the just men who are descended from Jacob, even although they neither keep the Sabbath, nor are circumcised, nor observe the feasts. Assuredly they shall receive the holy inheritance of God. For God speaks by Isaiah thus: ‘I, the Lord God, have called Thee in righteousness, and will hold Thine hand, and will strengthen Thee; and I have given Thee for a covenant of the people, for a light of the Gentiles, to open the eyes of the blind, to bring out them that are bound from the chains, and those who sit in darkness from the prison-house.’2013 And again: ‘Lift up a standard2014 for the people; for, lo, the Lord has made it heard unto the end of the earth. Say ye to the daughters of Zion, Behold, thy Saviour has come; having His reward, and His work before His face: and He shall call it a holy nation, redeemed by the Lord.

There's a lot to digest there. Basically we are a holy nation, and all who are not in Christ will be judged (judged does not mean condemned) by Christ (He is, after all, God) and he has told us that he is "Lord, even of the Sabbath". Even so, I am not understanding why you conflate the Lord's Day with the Sabbath.

Cyprian (~210 - 258 AD), born a pagan to a wealth family, who later converted. became a bishop in Carthage, and died a martyr because he would not denounce Christ and accept the Roman gods, says this:

For in respect of the observance of the eighth day of the Jewish circumcision of the flesh, a sacrament was given beforehand in shadow and in usage; but when Christ came, it was fulfilled in truth. For because the eighth day, that is, the first day after the Sabbath, was to be that on which the Lord should rise again, and should quicken us, and give us circumcision of the spirit, the eighth day, that is the first day after the Sabbath, and the Lord's Day, went before in the figure; which figure ceased when by and by the truth came and spiritual circumcision was given to us

— Cyprian, Letter LVIII​

So we've gone back to the 2nd Century and we do NOT find the church keeping the Sabbath. We do find the church celebrating the Lord's Day, ON A SUNDAY, because this just happens to be the day of Resurrection.

I think your argument is missing a valid premise.
 

3rdAngel

Well-Known Member
Correct!



Hi @3rdAngel ,

I am not going to look this up, and accept your definition subject to later review (when I find some time, which just seems to be in short supply these days). :(



WHOA! :)

Let's stop here and analyze what you've just told us.

Perhaps you can go into a little more detail.

1. If we can't get a weekly occurrence out of a one-time event, how do we get a yearly occurrence out of a one-time event? I seem to remember the Jews had Passover, and we (Christians) have the Emblems!

Your premise is unsubstantiated and unscriptural. Since it appears as an opening remark in your OP, I suspect it is foundational and perhaps fatal to any further arguments you might make.

Please elaborate on this, develop it further, or give us another basis as to why the Lord's Day, which the Church associates with the Resurrection, is forbidden from being a yearly event. Resurrection Sunday is a unique day made possible by the Lord and well vetted in scripture. Why wouldn't we celebrate it?



There is not a single scripture that references "Saturday", "Monday" or "Wednesday" either. The Lord's Day, as you have just stated, is the day Christ was resurrected. We have determined, from reading scripture that his resurrection occurred on SUNDAY.

Do you believe the Church somehow got this wrong? On what basis??



Okay, so let's take a look:

Exodus 20:8 “Remember the Sabbath day, to keep it holy. 9 Six days you shall labor and do all your work, 10 but the seventh day is the Sabbath of the Lord your God. In it you shall do no work: you, nor your son, nor your daughter, nor your male servant, nor your female servant, nor your cattle, nor your stranger who is within your gates. 11 For in six days the Lord made the heavens and the earth, the sea, and all that is in them, and rested the seventh day. Therefore the Lord blessed the Sabbath day and hallowed it.​

I'm not seeing the "Lord's Day" here.

As you already pointed out, the Lord's Day to the catholic (small 'c', meaning historic, traditional, or "universal") church has always been Resurrection Day, and not the Sabbath. Can you explain how the Sabbath became the Lord' Day? Is this your personal assertion, or are you claiming this as the position of your church?

As far as the historic church, we can take a peek at some of the church's Patriarchs, and see what they had to say:

Chapter XXVI.—No salvation to the Jews except through Christ. (Justin Martyr, Dialogue with Trypho, mid 2nd century):
And I replied, “I do not say so; but those who have persecuted and do persecute Christ, if they do not repent, shall not inherit anything on the holy mountain. But the Gentiles, who have believed on Him, and have repented of the sins which they have committed, they shall receive the inheritance along with the patriarchs and the prophets, and the just men who are descended from Jacob, even although they neither keep the Sabbath, nor are circumcised, nor observe the feasts. Assuredly they shall receive the holy inheritance of God. For God speaks by Isaiah thus: ‘I, the Lord God, have called Thee in righteousness, and will hold Thine hand, and will strengthen Thee; and I have given Thee for a covenant of the people, for a light of the Gentiles, to open the eyes of the blind, to bring out them that are bound from the chains, and those who sit in darkness from the prison-house.’2013 And again: ‘Lift up a standard2014 for the people; for, lo, the Lord has made it heard unto the end of the earth. Say ye to the daughters of Zion, Behold, thy Saviour has come; having His reward, and His work before His face: and He shall call it a holy nation, redeemed by the Lord.

There's a lot to digest there. Basically we are a holy nation, and all who are not in Christ will be judged (judged does not mean condemned) by Christ (He is, after all, God) and he has told us that he is "Lord, even of the Sabbath". Even so, I am not understanding why you conflate the Lord's Day with the Sabbath.

Cyprian (~210 - 258 AD), born a pagan to a wealth family, who later converted. became a bishop in Carthage, and died a martyr because he would not denounce Christ and accept the Roman gods, says this:

For in respect of the observance of the eighth day of the Jewish circumcision of the flesh, a sacrament was given beforehand in shadow and in usage; but when Christ came, it was fulfilled in truth. For because the eighth day, that is, the first day after the Sabbath, was to be that on which the Lord should rise again, and should quicken us, and give us circumcision of the spirit, the eighth day, that is the first day after the Sabbath, and the Lord's Day, went before in the figure; which figure ceased when by and by the truth came and spiritual circumcision was given to us

— Cyprian, Letter LVIII​

So we've gone back to the 2nd Century and we do NOT find the church keeping the Sabbath. We do find the church celebrating the Lord's Day, ON A SUNDAY, because this just happens to be the day of Resurrection.

I think your argument is missing a valid premise.

Hi nice to meet you Oeste. Actually it is not missing any valid premise. Please read the OP carefully before responding. The OP is asking for scripture and there is no scripture that states anywhere in the bible that Sunday is "the Lords day". The only references to "the Lords day" in the bible is to Gods Sabbath day.

The Greek words used for the day that JOHN was in the Spirit of is the for Lord's day are
  • REVELATION 1:10 εγενομην εν πνευματι εν τη κυριακη ημερα και ηκουσα οπισω μου φωνην μεγαλην ως σαλπιγγος
The word "κυριακη" (translit. "kuriake") is an Adjective - Dative - Singular - Feminine. This means it is being used as a 'possessive' as ownership or belonging to ("of", see 1 Corinthians 11:20, "the Lord's supper"), which means the "day" in context belongs to "the Lord". It is literally "the Lord's (belonging to) day". This means, that the "day" in context is uniquely "the Lord's" out of all the 7 days of the week, for the day under consideration is that which exists within the week, as a day which repeats weekly. This is extremely important, as those who incorrectly assume it to mean "the first [day] of the week" in lieu of Jesus' resurrection, cannot get a weekly occurrence out of a one-time event, in fulfillment of typology of the Firstfruit/Wavesheaf in Leviticus 23:9-14, as made known in 1 Corinthians 15:20,23

The problem here however is that there is not a single scripture that references Sunday or the first day of the week (bible names for the days of the week) to being "the Lords day" in scripture.

According to the scripture "the Lords day" however can be referenced to "the Sabbath day" of Gods' 4th commandment found in Exodus 20:8-11.

Letting the scriptures answer this question
  • WHAT DAY IS THE LORD'S DAY ACCORDING TO THE SCRIPTURES?
  • MATTHEW 12:8 FOR THE SON OF MAN IS LORD EVEN OF THE SABBATH DAY
This then promotes a bit of a dilemma for the Church as there is not a single scripture in all of the bible that days "the Lords day" from Revelation 1:10 is Sunday. Yet there is many scriptures referencing "the Lords day" or Gods' specific claims to ownership of any particular day to the Sabbath day that he blessed and set aside as a holy day of rest for a memorial of creation (see Genesis 2:1-3) and made one of Gods' 10 commandments (Exodus 20:8-11).

God's "ownership" of the Sabbath day or "Lord's day is also repeated elsewhere as "MY" (ownership of the day as in the Greek used in REVELATION 1:10 κυριακη). Other scriptures in the bible pointing to "the Lords day" as being the Sabbath day...
  • MATTHEW 12:8 FOR THE SON OF MAN IS LORD EVEN OF THE SABBATH DAY. (the Sabbath day is Lord's day)
  • ISAIAH 58:13-14 [13], If you turn away your foot from the SABBATH, from doing your pleasure on MY HOLY DAY (God's claim to ownership of the Sabbath day); and call the sabbath a delight, the holy of the LORD, honorable; and shall honor him, not doing your own ways, nor finding your own pleasure, nor speaking your own words: [14], Then shall you delight yourself in the LORD; and I will cause you to ride on the high places of the earth, and feed you with the heritage of Jacob your father: for the mouth of the LORD has spoken it.
  • LEVITICUS 19:30 You shall keep MY SABBATHS, (God's claim to ownership of the Sabbath day)and reverence my sanctuary: I am the LORD.
  • EZEKIEL 20:12 Moreover also I gave them MY SABBATHS, (God's claim to ownership of the Sabbath day) to be a sign between me and them, that they might know that I am the LORD that sanctify them.
κυριακῇ ἡμέρᾳ used in Revelations 1:10 is in reference to the Lord's ownership of the day. It does not say that this day is in reference to μιά των σαββάτων which means the FIRST DAY OF THE WEEK.

............................

Your challenge here in this OP is to prove from the scriptures alone that the Lord's DAY is in reference to the First day of the week. If you cannot all you have is a teaching and tradition of men that is not supported in the scriptures. There is not a single scripture in all the bible that refers to Sunday as being "the Lords day".
 

2ndpillar

Well-Known Member
Summary there is no scripture in all of the bible that says "Sunday" is "the Lords day". This is a man-made teaching and tradition that has led many to break Gods 4th commandment either knowingly or unknowingly. The seventh day Sabbath of Gods 4th commandment is "the Lords day" according to the scriptures. May God bless you as you seek him through His Word.
Where did the tradition of keeping the day of the sun, Sunday, as the day of rest? And which "Lord" would be worshipped by keeping the "day of the sun", and who was the "beast"/king who held the authority of the "dragon" in proscribing this "new" day of rest. (Revelation 13: 4-11)? What is the judgment for keeping this unholy day (Revelation 14:10), and thereby worshipping the "dragon"? And how do you discern the "tare seed"/message of the "enemy"/"devil" from the "good seed"/message of the son of man" (Matthew 13:24-30), which are planted in the same "field"/NT book, which was canonized by the harlot daughter of Babylon (Revelation 17:5)?
 

URAVIP2ME

Veteran Member
Where did the tradition of keeping the day of the sun, Sunday, as the day of rest? And which "Lord" would be worshipped by keeping the "day of the sun", and who was the "beast"/king who held the authority of the "dragon" in proscribing this "new" day of rest. (Revelation 13: 4-11)? What is the judgment for keeping this unholy day (Revelation 14:10), and thereby worshipping the "dragon"? And how do you discern the "tare seed"/message of the "enemy"/"devil" from the "good seed"/message of the son of man" (Matthew 13:24-30), which are planted in the same "field"/NT book, which was canonized by the harlot daughter of Babylon (Revelation 17:5)?
Sunday (Not Sonday) became a rest day at the time of Constantine to be a rest day for farmers.
John came to be in the future which is the setting for our day for Revelation.
So, the Lord's Day of Rev. 1:10 is in reference to our now day or time frame, and Not to any particular or specific day of the week.
So, the ' Day of our Lord ' - 1st Cor. 1:8; 1st Cor. 5:5; 2nd Cor. 1:14 - would also be in reference to Jesus' coming Thousand-Year Day.
 

2ndpillar

Well-Known Member
Sunday (Not Sonday) became a rest day at the time of Constantine to be a rest day for farmers.
John came to be in the future which is the setting for our day for Revelation.
So, the Lord's Day of Rev. 1:10 is in reference to our now day or time frame, and Not to any particular or specific day of the week.
So, the ' Day of our Lord ' - 1st Cor. 1:8; 1st Cor. 5:5; 2nd Cor. 1:14 - would also be in reference to Jesus' coming Thousand-Year Day.
The "day of the LORD" (Joel 2:31-32) refers to the beginning of the 7th millennium, as in the 7th day of the week, or as with Scripture says, a day will be as 1000 years, and will be started with the "great tribulation" (Matthew 24:21). Your 8th day, the first day of the week, would allude to after the 7th millennium, when those not found in the "book of life", will find their rest in the "lake of fire" (Revelation 20:15). Constantine's decree stated that all shops and government offices will be closed on the "day of the sun", Sunday, which is your first day of the week. It did not mention farmers, who probably went ahead and milked their cows without interference from the emperor.
In the year 321 A.D., Constantine decreed, "On the venerable day of the Sun let the magistrates and people residing in cities rest, and let all workshops be closed" (Codex Justinianus lib. 3, tit. 12, 3; trans. in
 

URAVIP2ME

Veteran Member
The "day of the LORD" (Joel 2:31-32) refers to the beginning of the 7th millennium, as in the 7th day of the week, or as with Scripture says, a day will be as 1000 years, and will be started with the "great tribulation" (Matthew 24:21). Your 8th day, the first day of the week, would allude to after the 7th millennium, when those not found in the "book of life", will find their rest in the "lake of fire" (Revelation 20:15). Constantine's decree stated that all shops and government offices will be closed on the "day of the sun", Sunday, which is your first day of the week. It did not mention farmers, who probably went ahead and milked their cows without interference from the emperor.
In the year 321 A.D., Constantine decreed, "On the venerable day of the Sun let the magistrates and people residing in cities rest, and let all workshops be closed" (Codex Justinianus lib. 3, tit. 12, 3; trans. in
Yes, agree about 321 C.E. (Common Era) about Constantine.
I had a very old clipping that added his motive about giving farmers a rest day. It was Not specific meaning 'cow' farmers. Not all farmers have cows.
Rather than worship of the Son (SONday) Sunday became a worship day for the SUN aka SUNday.

I'm speaking about John being privileged to see the Lord's Day at the time setting of Revelation 1:10.
Revelation is set well after Matt. 24:21, rather set at the time that includes the coming great tribulation of Rev. 7:14.
So, Matthew 24 has both a 'minor' fulfillment (year 70) and a coming 'MAJOR' fulfillment at Jesus' Glory Time - Matt. 25:31-34
I had No 8th Day mentioned.
God's 7th day is still ongoing.- Hebrews chapter 4
 

2ndpillar

Well-Known Member
Yes, agree about 321 C.E. (Common Era) about Constantine.
I had a very old clipping that added his motive about giving farmers a rest day. It was Not specific meaning 'cow' farmers. Not all farmers have cows.
Rather than worship of the Son (SONday) Sunday became a worship day for the SUN aka SUNday.

I'm speaking about John being privileged to see the Lord's Day at the time setting of Revelation 1:10.
Revelation is set well after Matt. 24:21, rather set at the time that includes the coming great tribulation of Rev. 7:14.
So, Matthew 24 has both a 'minor' fulfillment (year 70) and a coming 'MAJOR' fulfillment at Jesus' Glory Time - Matt. 25:31-34
I had No 8th Day mentioned.
God's 7th day is still ongoing.- Hebrews chapter 4
We are in the 6th millennium,, supposedly the 5783 year of the Jewish calendar. As for the writings of the unknown writer of Hebrews, who had ties to the false prophet Paul, get real. As per Hebrews 3:18-19, quoting from Ps 95:7, it was the "disobedient" who didn't "enter His rest". Further later laws with regard to the Jews/farmers/sheep herders, who kept the true Sabbath, they could not own land, nor be in government service, and wound-up being bankers, shop keepers, traders, and doctors. A good way to fleece the Gentiles/sheep of their money and well being. Matthew 24:21 is with regards to a "great tribulation" which has not occurred since the beginning of the world until now, or ever shall, which would not match 70 A.D. destruction of Jerusalem. In WWII, the Jews had around 6 million killed. and the world lost as many as 60 million people. The "8th day" follows the "feast of Booths", which is the feast day the Gentile/nations will be compelled to keep during the "millennium" (Zechariah 14:16) and is known as the feast of Shemini Atzeret. “Eighth Day of the Solemn Assembly", which coincides with the millennium following the 7th millennium, a judgment day for those who slept through the millennium (Revelation 20).
 

URAVIP2ME

Veteran Member
I find No sleeping figurative ' sheep' at the separating judgment time of Matthew 25:37, rather wide awake ' sheep ' who remain alive on Earth and be here to see calendar Day One of Jesus' Millennium-Long Day of governing over Earth for a thousand years. (Isaiah 26:20 )
Since Jesus will end death on Earth (1st Cor. 15:24-26; Isaiah 25:8 ) then not only are the 'sheep' offered the same opportunity that Adam had before his downfall which was to live forever on Earth, but also for all the resurrected people because Resurrection Day (John 6:40,44) is Jesus' Thousand-Year Day for governing over Earth.
It's the ' final test ' that comes for both the 'sheep' and the already resurrected dead on Earth at the end of the thousand years.
 

2ndpillar

Well-Known Member
I find No sleeping figurative ' sheep' at the separating judgment time of Matthew 25:37, rather wide awake ' sheep ' who remain alive on Earth and be here to see calendar Day One of Jesus' Millennium-Long Day of governing over Earth for a thousand years. (Isaiah 26:20 )
Since Jesus will end death on Earth (1st Cor. 15:24-26; Isaiah 25:8 ) then not only are the 'sheep' offered the same opportunity that Adam had before his downfall which was to live forever on Earth, but also for all the resurrected people because Resurrection Day (John 6:40,44) is Jesus' Thousand-Year Day for governing over Earth.
It's the ' final test ' that comes for both the 'sheep' and the already resurrected dead on Earth at the end of the thousand years.
I am not sure you were listening in class. In Ezekiel 34:20-24 the LORD will judge between the sheep, and then he will appoint David as their prince, the one shepherd with regards to "Israel". Per Ezekiel 36 & 37, Judah and Ephraim/Israel will be combined on the land given to Jacob, under the leadership of David as their king. As for Matthew 25:33, the sheep and the goats will be separated, in line with Ezekiel 34:16, whereas the "fat sheep" who did not feed or care for the sheep, will be "destroyed". As for who will remain after the angels separate the tares from the wheat, the "tares", the weeds trying to appear as wheat, will be the "first" to be "gathered" and "thrown into the furnace of fire". (Matthew 13:30), then the sheep will be "gathered" into the "barn". The "sheep" are not "sleeping", it is just that they are on the wide path to destruction, being led by the "false prophets" (Matthew 7:13-15), or in the words of Revelation 13:14, "deceived" by the "beast with two horns like a lamb" Constantine, the establisher of the Gentile church dogmas at his Council of Nicaea in the year 325 A.D., and his two Christ like leaders, Peter and Paul, who are the pillars of the Gentile church, and for whom Constantine glorified by building a basilica for each. As for the "bread of life", that would be the "Word of God", which the Gentile church has deemed "obsolete", opening the gates to their "destruction". There is no "final test", there is only a white throne judgment, whereas everyone will be judged from the "book of life" (Revelation 20:12).
 
Top