all of Christ's disciples had to know what the Kingdom was in order to preach about it.
That's not true. There has never been a requirement that we know the intricacies of something to know about its arrival. I don't have to know how nuclear fission works or, even deeper, why our physical reality exists in such a way as to produce nuclear physics, to announce that nuclear energy is real.
I have not met a single Catholic person yet who can define what God's Kingdom actually is
That's probably because most Catholics believe the physical descriptors of the Kingdom in scripture are symbolic/metaphorical analogues trying to capture a sliver of a truth beyond human comprehension.
Would you like to try again?
Would you like to provide what you think the Kingdom of Heaven will be when actualized.
What "eternal divine substance".....and where will I find mention of that in scripture?
You'll find it right next to where in scripture it lists the scriptures. No where in the scriptures are we forbidden from thinking about the truths the scriptures give us. God exists. We exist. There is some truth of God's existence wherein He is God and we are not. We, being the Christian world since at least the middle of the second century and probably before, have called that truth the divine ousia, or substance. Is not God eternal? Is there not a truth of existence which differentiates man from God? If you answer yes, then you believe in an eternal divine substance.
The Apostle Paul was clear about this
Indeed,
all things have been created through Him. Which must needs include Him. Both Paul and John are clear. Jesus was not created, but begotten. Just like a man does not create his child, he begets the child from his own self. The Son of God is not a creation of the Father, He is begotten from the Father's own self. Just as the begotten son of a man can be nothing but a man. The begotten Son of God can be no else than.
He was the first and only direct creation of his Father.
But, " In the beginning God created the heavens and the earth" Gen. 1:1, "Then God proceeded to make the expanse" Gen 1:7, the great sea monsters and every living soul which moves about 21, man 27, everything 31, and
Jehova God formed man from the dust Gen 2:7, and the helper beasts 2:18, Jehova God made woman from the rib of Adam. There is more of course, Psalm 19 'the sky above declares
God's handiwork', Isaiah 45 'the Lord, who created the heavens', Nehemiah 9 "You are the Lord, you alone. You have made heaven, the heaven of heavens, with all their host, the earth and all that is on it, the seas and all that is in them".
Even if Christ created everything
but Himself, He is still the Jehova God of Genesis. Because that is who created the world, the sun and stars, the beasts of the seas and the earth, and man.
Did you forget that "theos" (god) in Greek is not a word used exclusively for deities....it is also used with regard to those with divine authority.
How could I forget, with you to remind me. You will agree that the vast majority of the time it refers to God, yes? Especially in reference to the theos who created all things that have been created.
If Jesus was God, then here was a great opportunity for him to speak up
Just a few verses earlier, some had begged Him to plainly state whether He was the messiah, and He didn't. He said His works speak for Him. Jesus didn't take "the great opportunities" to speak up and He didn't cast pearls before swine.
That is why the Septuagint comes in handy.
Indeed it does. For instance, in the Septuagint, the word kyrios is used as a translation of the Tetragrammaton, in fact that is Mark's sole use of the word. Yet, Paul especially, uses that term to refer to Jesus. Another example of how the scripture identifies Jesus with the God of Israel.
Since we are going to talk about translations, let's speak of interesting translations. Like 1 Corinthians 10:9. Where the NWT has Jehova and the greek text is christos. Now, to me that is an acceptable statement, being that Jesus is in fact our Lord Jehova, the God of all. I also get why the NWT identified the Christos with Jehova, because the context of the passage is a reference back to a time when people tested Jehova. Though I don't think that is a linguistically sound translation.
It isn't just one passage, it isn't just some off hand statements. Jesus is consistently identified with the God of Israel as described in the Old Testament.
About the practice of laying of hands? Know. It comes from multiple sources all across the ancient Church. That's how authority was passed.
The "rooms" were reserved for the few, not the rest.
So yes, when Jesus said He was coming back to get people to be with Him, He did only mean a few.
When you consider that the manner of Jesus death is irrelevant
I'm not so sure it is entirely irrelevant, I think His manner of death was never going to be peaceful but symbolic of taking all of the suffering and sin of the world unto Himself.
He is a singular entity and I invite you to show me where Jesus ever said anything to the contrary.
I would never try, because I believe that God is a singular entity as well.
scripture disagrees, which is why I believe that the RCC rejected sola scriptura
Which is your choice. I think it's obvious that the Church of Rome, along with the Churches of Antioch, Jerusalem, Alexandria, etc, were founded before the New Testament scriptures were written and therefore unable to accept the position that their authority and righteousness weren't real until the scriptures came along. Sola Scriptura didn't exist until the reformation, it didn't exist for the first Church. Furthermore, none of the scriptures even call for sola scriptura, so it is a-scriptural. Finally, some of the scriptures explicitly state that we are to hold on to what we were taught whether or not it was written down, so sola scriptura beyond having no scriptural support is actually contra-scriptural.
It has no history. It has no support. It violates scriptural guidance. It is a completely bankrupt human invention of the reformation.