John D. Brey
Well-Known Member
In multiple threads over the last halve-decade or so the miraculous nature and power of Moses' rod (aka Nehushtan) have been thoroughly exegeted. Furthermore, the last few threads started here, this year, have dealt mostly with Moses' rod, God's right hand (as it were) from one vantage point or in one guise or disguise or another. As has been pointed out, and supported with citations from Jewish authorities, the sages are aware that in many cases the rod of Moses, and Aaron's rod, are often juxtaposed in the text so that it's not perfectly clear if they share the same rod, or have rods of their own.
Adding complexity to the question is the fact that a Hebrew word for "rod" שבט, is also used for "tribe," as in the tribes of Israel/Jacob. In one of the most seminal passages in the Pentateuch, Moses has the head of each tribe שבט, bring their ruler's rod שבט, (or מטה) to be placed in the tabernacle to see whom the Lord will chose as the priestly tribe? As the text subsequently reveals, it's Aaron's rod that produces a basal-shoot, that buds asexually, from dry ground, from a dead stump, to produce fruit in the priestly-shape of the Mandola, or vesica piscis (the almond shape). (Rabbi Hirsch notes ---Bemidbar 17:17 --- that the tribes of Israel are called מטות, literally "branches," so that both "branches" מטות, and or a "staff" שבט represent tribes or a tribe.)
While in the process of exegeting Ezekiel 20:37 for another study I came to realize a substantial nuance of the question concerning Moses' and Aaron's rods as these two rods relate to primogeniture in Genesis. Since the rods represent the tribes, and Moses and Aaron are both of the tribe of Levi, therefore the tribe, and staff, that, because it produces fruit asexually, clonally, becomes the symbol of the priesthood, the rod associated with the priesthood, would seemingly be a single staff since Moses and Aaron are both from the tribe of Levi, and seemingly should share the same staff? In all the other studies of Moses' rod it was supposed that Moses and Aaron shared the same rod or staff.
John
Adding complexity to the question is the fact that a Hebrew word for "rod" שבט, is also used for "tribe," as in the tribes of Israel/Jacob. In one of the most seminal passages in the Pentateuch, Moses has the head of each tribe שבט, bring their ruler's rod שבט, (or מטה) to be placed in the tabernacle to see whom the Lord will chose as the priestly tribe? As the text subsequently reveals, it's Aaron's rod that produces a basal-shoot, that buds asexually, from dry ground, from a dead stump, to produce fruit in the priestly-shape of the Mandola, or vesica piscis (the almond shape). (Rabbi Hirsch notes ---Bemidbar 17:17 --- that the tribes of Israel are called מטות, literally "branches," so that both "branches" מטות, and or a "staff" שבט represent tribes or a tribe.)
While in the process of exegeting Ezekiel 20:37 for another study I came to realize a substantial nuance of the question concerning Moses' and Aaron's rods as these two rods relate to primogeniture in Genesis. Since the rods represent the tribes, and Moses and Aaron are both of the tribe of Levi, therefore the tribe, and staff, that, because it produces fruit asexually, clonally, becomes the symbol of the priesthood, the rod associated with the priesthood, would seemingly be a single staff since Moses and Aaron are both from the tribe of Levi, and seemingly should share the same staff? In all the other studies of Moses' rod it was supposed that Moses and Aaron shared the same rod or staff.
John
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