Often, on Christian message boards, they cite Bible verses that, for some reason, put the word "homosexuality" in some verses.
And yet, homosexuals can't reply. At least in one big Christian message board. The usual bullying...
Well now to the question:
Does it make sense to attribute this word to a Bible verse, when the concept of what homosexuality really is... did not emerge until the late 19th century? If I am informed right?
In my opinion it does not.
Here's a list of versions that use "homosexuality":
1 Timothy 1:10 for the sexually immoral, for homosexuals, for slave traders and liars and perjurers, and for anyone else who is averse to sound teaching
Quite a few.
Some versions also use that word for the OT.
And yet, homosexuals can't reply. At least in one big Christian message board. The usual bullying...
Well now to the question:
Does it make sense to attribute this word to a Bible verse, when the concept of what homosexuality really is... did not emerge until the late 19th century? If I am informed right?
In my opinion it does not.
Here's a list of versions that use "homosexuality":
1 Timothy 1:10 for the sexually immoral, for homosexuals, for slave traders and liars and perjurers, and for anyone else who is averse to sound teaching
Quite a few.
Some versions also use that word for the OT.