Brian2
Veteran Member
First, I want to say that I respect your point of view eventhough I don't agree with it.
The important detail is that verse in Hebrew in psalm 110 says "adonee" which is better translated as "my master". However, the author of the book of Matthew changes that. Instead of using the greek word for "master" (Strong's Greek: 1203. δεσπότης (despotés) -- lord, master) they use the word for the name of God (Strong's Greek: 2962. κύριος (kurios) -- lord, master). See below:
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Notice that in the greek, it's the name of God (captial L, Lord) listed twice. Take a look at the actual Hebrew of Psalm 110:
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Do you see how the author of Matthew changed the verse? Things like this cast serious doubt on the accuracy of the NT. The short episode in question was intended to show how the pharisee was not able to answer the question. But the question is based on a mistranslated verse in Psalms.
This is why I said: "It's a flawed conclusion based on a flawed translation." The flawed conclusion is: "The pharisee couldn't answer the question." A more likely conclusion is: If this episode actually occured, the authors of the NT changed the story to make it look good for Jesus and make it look bad for the the pharisee. By changing the words of the psalm, the authors of NT showed they were willing to sacrifice accuracy in favor of making Jesus look good.
If the episode occured, I expect the pharisee would have answered either that the psalm was being misquoted, or they would have answered that the Jewish Messiah is a King. A King is the master of the entire kingdom including David. The father-son relationship wouldn't change that. This is obvious if the psalm is quoted correctly using the words "my master", not "lord".
I see "master" and "lord" as synonyms and the capitalisation of the K in the Greek as out of respect for Jesus and not as a way of making Him into God. So I don't see the Gospel as misquoting.
But yes the Pharisee would be able to say that the Messiah is a King and so should be lord of David in that respect.
That would be the case only after David was not King and the Messiah became King however. David seems to be saying that the Messiah was his lord then, at the writing of the Psalm and I just noticed that if this lord is the Messiah it seems that there will be a time when He will be seated at God's right hand while God makes His enemies His footstool and then the Messiah will be coming to judge the earth.